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Campbell's Biology, 9e (Reece et al.)
Chapter 2 The Chemical Context of Life
This chapter presents basic chemical principles for understanding the chemical context of living
organisms, from atomic structure to the nature of chemical bonds and an introduction to chemical
equilibrium. These questions focus on elements most important to life or the study of life, including the
elements that comprise organic molecules and important trace elements. Some isotopes are important in
geologic dating and in biological tracer studies. How elements participate in forming different types of
chemical bonds is essential to mastering subsequent topics on the behavior and properties of biological
molecules, structures, and energy metabolism.
Multiple-Choice Questions
1) About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements
make up approximately 96% of living matter?
A) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen
B) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen
C) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen
D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
E) carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium
2) Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of the following is
a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates, but not by other organisms such as
bacteria or plants?
A) nitrogen
B) calcium
C) iodine
D) sodium
E) phosphorus
3) Which of the following statements is false?
A) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen are the most abundant elements of living matter.
B) Some trace elements are very abundant on Earth.
C) Virtually all organisms require the same elements in the same quantities.
D) Iron is an example of an element needed by all organisms.
E) Other than some trace elements, animals are mostly made up of the same elements as plants, in
similar proportions.
4) What factors are most important in determining which elements are most common in living matter?
A) the relative abundances of the elements in Earth's crust and atmosphere
B) the emergent properties of the simple compounds made from these elements
C) the reactivity of the elements with water
D) the chemical stability of the elements
E) both the relative abundances of the elements and the emergent properties of the compounds made
from these elements
5) Why is each element unique and different from other elements in chemical properties?
A) Each element has a unique atomic mass.
B) Each element has a unique atomic weight.
C) Each element has a unique number of protons in its nucleus.
D) Each element has a unique number of neutrons in its nucleus.
E) Each element has different radioactive properties.
6) Knowing just the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?
A) the chemical properties of the element
B) the number of protons in the element
C) the number of neutrons in the element
D) the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
E) both the number of protons and the chemical properties of the element
7) In what way are elements in the same column of the periodic table the same?
A) They have the same number of protons.
B) They have the same number of neutrons.
C) They have the same number of electrons.
D) They have the same number of electrons in their valence shell.
E) They have the same number of electron shells.
8) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 16. Thus, what is the atomic mass of an
oxygen atom?
A) exactly 8 grams
B) exactly 8 daltons
C) approximately 16 grams
D) approximately 16 daltons
E) 24 amu (atomic mass units)
9) The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons. Which of the following is a correct
statement concerning nitrogen?
A) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 7 daltons and an atomic mass of 14.
B) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 daltons and an atomic mass of 7.
C) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of 7 grams.
D) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 7 and an atomic number of 14.
E) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of approximately 14 daltons.
10) Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist, with mass numbers of
92, 94, 95, 96, 97, 98, and 100. Therefore, which of the following can be true?
A) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons.
B) The isotopes of molybdenum have different electron configurations.
C) The isotopes of molybdenum can have between 50 and 58 protons.
D) The isotopes of molybdenum have between 50 and 58 neutrons and have different electron
configurations.
E) The isotopes of molybdenum have between 50 and 58 protons and have different electron
configurations.
11) Carbon-12 is the most common isotope of carbon, and has an atomic mass of 12 daltons. A mole of
carbon in naturally occurring coal, however, weighs slightly more than 12 grams. Why?
A) The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons.
B) Some carbon atoms in nature have an extra proton.
C) Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons.
D) Some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution.
E) Some carbon atoms in nature have undergone radioactive decay.
12) Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described below?
Atom 1 Atom 2
H H
A) They are isomers.
B) They are polymers.
C) They are isotopes.
D) They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectively.
E) They each contain 1 neutron.
13) The precise weight of a mole of some pure elements like silicon (Si) can vary slightly from the
standard atomic mass, or even from sample to sample. Why?
A) The element may undergo radioactive decay.
B) The element may react with itself and gain or lose subatomic particles.
C) The atoms of the element form chemical bonds with each other, and that changes the weight of the
element.
D) The element may have multiple stable isotopes, and the isotopic composition may vary from sample
to sample.
E) The amount of energy absorbed by the element affects the mass of its electrons, and thus the atomic
mass can vary slightly.
14) One difference between carbon-12 (
12C
6
) is that carbon-14 (
14C
6
) has
A) two more protons than carbon-12.
B) two more electrons than carbon-12.
C) two more neutrons than carbon-12.
D) two more protons and two more neutrons than carbon-12.
E) two more electrons and two more neutrons than carbon-12.
15) An atom has 6 electrons in its outer shell. How many unpaired electrons does it have?
A) 0
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
E) 2 or 4
16) The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen-15 is heavier than nitrogen-14 because the atomic
nucleus of nitrogen-15 contains how many neutrons?
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 12
E) 14
17) Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient
energy, a possible result is that
A) an electron may move to an electron shell farther away from the nucleus.
B) an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
C) the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
D) the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation, and become a radioactive isotope.
E) the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.
18) The atomic number of neon is 10. Therefore, which of the following is most correct about an atom
of neon?
A) It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell.
B) It is inert.
C) It has an atomic mass of 10 daltons.
D) It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell and it is inert.
E) It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell, it is inert, and it has an atomic mass of 10 daltons.
19) From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has
A) 15 neutrons.
B) 15 protons.
C) 15 electrons.
D) 8 electrons in its outermost electron shell.
E) 15 protons and 15 electrons.
20) Atoms whose outer electron shells contain 8 electrons tend to
A) form ions in aqueous solutions.
B) form hydrogen bonds in aqueous solutions.
C) be stable and chemically nonreactive, or inert.
D) be gaseous at room temperature.
E) be both chemically inert and gaseous at room temperature.
21) The atomic number of each atom is given to the left of each of the elements below. Which of the
atoms has the same valence as carbon (
12C
6
)?
A) 7N nitrogen
B) 9F flourine
C) 10Ne neon
D) 12Mg magnesium
E) 14Si silicon
22) Two atoms appear to have the same mass number. These atoms
A) must have the same atomic number.
B) must have the same number of electrons.
C) must have the same chemical properties.
D) must have the same number of protons + neutrons.
E) must have the same atomic number, the same number of protons + neutrons, the same number of
electrons, and the same chemical properties.
23) Fluorine has an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19. How many electrons are needed to
complete the valence shell of a fluorine atom?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 0
D) 7
E) 9
7
24) What is the maximum number of electrons in a single 2 p orbital of an atom?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
25) The organic molecules in living organisms have a measurably lower ratio of carbon-13/carbon-12,
two stable isotopes of carbon that comprise approximately 1.1% and 98.9% of atmospheric carbon,
respectively. What is a reasonable explanation for this phenomenon?
A) Photosynthesis preferentially uses carbon dioxide molecules with carbon-12, and the lower carbon-
13/carbon-12 ratio propagates through the food chain.
B) Carbon dioxide molecules with carbon-13 stay in the upper atmosphere and are less available to
terrestrial plants and algae.
C) Carbon-13 has a different valence electron configuration and is therefore less chemically reactive
than carbon-12.
D) Oxygen atoms preferentially react with carbon-13, thereby enriching the atmosphere with carbon
dioxide molecules containing carbon-13 atoms.
E) Carbon dioxide molecules containing carbon-13 are heavier and sink into the ocean depths, making
them less available to living organisms.
26) Phosphorus-32, a radioactive isotope of phosphorus-31 (atomic number 15), undergoes a form of
radioactive decay whereby a neutron turns into a proton and emits radiation in the form of an electron.
What is the product of such radioactive decay of phosphorus-32?
A) phosphorus-31
B) a positively charged phosphorus-31 ion
C) a negatively charged phosphorus-32 ion
D) sulfur-32 (atomic number 16)
E) the conversion of the phosphorus-32 atom into pure energy
27) An atom with atomic number 12 would have what type of chemical behavior in bonding with other
elements?
A) It would form ions with a +1 charge.
B) It would form ions with a +2 charge.
C) It would form ions with a -1 charge.
D) It would form ions with a -2 charge.
E) It would form two covalent bonds with other atoms.
28) If a salamander relied on hydrogen bonds to cling to surfaces, what type of surface would cause the
most problems for this animal?
A) a surface coated with a thin film of water
B) a surface made with carbon and hydrogen atoms covalently bonded together
C) a surface made with carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms covalently bonded together
D) a surface made with carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen atoms covalently bonded together
E) a surface made with silicon and oxygen atoms covalently bonded together
29) A covalent chemical bond is one in which
A) electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become
oppositely charged.
B) protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms.
C) outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill the outer electron shells of
both atoms.
D) outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another atom.
E) an electron occupies a hybrid orbital located between the nuclei of two atoms.
30) If an atom of sulfur (atomic number 16) were allowed to react with atoms of hydrogen (atomic
number 1), which of the molecules below would be formed?
A) S H
B) H S H
C) H S H
|
H
D)
H
|
H S H
|
H
E) H S H
31) What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an element with atomic number 8 can make with
hydrogen?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 6
32) Nitrogen (N) is much more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following statements is
correct about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)?
A) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a partial negative charge.
B) The nitrogen atom has a strong positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a strong positive charge.
C) Each hydrogen atom has a slight negative charge; the nitrogen atom has a strong positive charge.
D) The nitrogen atom has a slight positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a slight negative charge.
E) There are covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms and polar bonds between each hydrogen atom
and the nitrogen atom.
33) When two atoms are equally electronegative, they will interact to form
A) hydrogen bonds.
B) van der Waals interactions.
C) polar covalent bonds.
D) nonpolar covalent bonds.
E) ionic bonds.
34) What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?
A) a nonpolar covalent bond
B) a polar covalent bond
C) an ionic bond
D) a hydrogen bond
E) a hydrophobic interaction
35) A covalent bond is likely to be polar when
A) one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other atom.
B) the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative.
C) oxygen is one of the two atoms sharing electrons.
D) one of the atoms has absorbed more energy than the other atom.
E) the two atoms sharing electrons are different elements.
36) Which of the following molecules contains the most polar covalent bond?
A) H2
B) O2
C) CO2
D) H2O
E) CH4
37) In comparing covalent bonds and ionic bonds, which of the following would you expect?
A) An atom can form covalent bonds with multiple partner atoms, but only a single ionic bond with a
single partner atom.
B) Covalent bonds and ionic bonds occupy opposite ends of a continuous spectrum, from nearly equal to
completely unequal sharing of electrons.
C) Both involve electrical attraction between the electrons of one atom and the nucleus of the other
atom.
D) Ionic interactions remain when covalent bonds are broken in water. Ionic bonds are much stronger
than covalent bonds.
38) What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?
A) Covalent bonds are formed between atoms to form molecules; ionic bonds are formed between atoms
to form compounds.
B) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the
sharing of single electrons between atoms.
C) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the electrical
attraction between atoms.
D) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of
protons between atoms.
E) Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of
electrons between atoms.
39) In ammonium chloride salt (NH4Cl) the anion is a single chloride ion, Cl. What is the cation of
NH4Cl?
A) N, with a charge of +1
B) NH, with a charge of +1
C) H3, with a charge of +1
D) NH4, with a charge of +1
E) NH4, with a charge of +4
40) The atomic number of chlorine is 17. The atomic number of magnesium is 12. What is the formula
for magnesium chloride?
A) MgCl
B) MgCl2
C) Mg2Cl
D) Mg2Cl2
E) MgCl3
41) How many electron pairs are shared between carbon atoms in a molecule that has the formula
C2H4?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
42) Which bond or interaction would be difficult to disrupt when compounds are put into water?
A) covalent bond
B) hydrogen bond
C) van der Waals interaction
D) ionic bond
E) either covalent bonds or ionic bonds
43) Which of the following explains most specifically the attraction of water molecules to one another?
A) nonpolar covalent bond
B) polar covalent bond
C) ionic bond
D) hydrogen bond
E) hydrophobic interaction
44) Van der Waals interactions result when
A) hybrid orbitals overlap.
B) electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule.
C) molecules held by ionic bonds react with water.
D) two polar covalent bonds react.
E) a hydrogen atom loses an electron.
45) What bonding or interaction is most likely to occur among a broad array of molecules of various
types (polar, nonpolar, hydrophilic, hydrophobic)?
A) covalent bonding
B) polar covalent bonding
C) ionic bonding
D) hydrogen bonding
E) van der Waals interactions
46) Which of the following is not considered to be a weak molecular interaction?
A) a covalent bond
B) a van der Waals interaction
C) an ionic bond in the presence of water
D) a hydrogen bond
E) both a hydrogen bond and a covalent bond
47) Which of the following would be regarded as compounds?
A) H2O, O2, and CH4
B) H2O and O2
C) O2 and CH4
D) CH4 and O2, but not H2O
E) H2O and CH4, but not O2
48) What is the maximum number of hydrogen atoms that can be covalently bonded in a molecule
containing two carbon atoms?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
E) 8
49) Which of the following is true for this reaction?
3 H2 + N2 ↔ 2 NH3
A) The reaction is nonreversible.
B) Hydrogen and nitrogen are the reactants of the reverse reaction.
C) Hydrogen and nitrogen are the products of the forward reaction.
D) Ammonia is being formed and decomposed.
E) Hydrogen and nitrogen are being decomposed.
50) Which of the following correctly describes chemical equilibrium?
A) Forward and reverse reactions continue with no effect on the concentrations of the reactants and
products.
B) Concentrations of products are higher than the concentrations of the reactants.
C) Forward and reverse reactions have stopped so that the concentration of the reactants equals the
concentration of the products.
D) Reactions stop only when all reactants have been converted to products.
E) There are equal concentrations of reactants and products, and the reactions have stopped.
51) Which of the following correctly describes any reaction that has reached chemical equilibrium?
A) The concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products.
B) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
C) All of the reactants have been converted to the products of the reaction.
D) All of the products have been converted to the reactants of the reaction.
E) Both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped with no net effect on the concentration of the
reactants and the products.
52) Which of these systems is least likely to be at chemical equilibrium?
A) a test tube of living cells
B) a test tube of organic molecules, kept in the freezer
C) a test tube of dry organic molecules, kept at room temperature
D) a test tube of organic molecules dissolved in water, kept at room temperature
E) a test tube of dead cells in water, kept at room temperature
