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Campbell’s Biology, 9e (Reece et al.)
Chapter 18 Regulation of Gene Expression
Chapter 18 includes new questions for every concept number; some of these questions cover new topics
whereas others build on existing questions. Several new questions introduce scenarios and art, thus
encouraging a higher level of thinking from students.
Multiple-Choice Questions
1) The role of a metabolite that controls a repressible operon is to
A) bind to the promoter region and decrease the affinity of RNA polymerase for the promoter.
B) bind to the operator region and block the attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
C) increase the production of inactive repressor proteins.
D) bind to the repressor protein and inactivate it.
E) bind to the repressor protein and activate it.
2) The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is
A) permanently turned on.
B) turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.
C) turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
D) turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
E) turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
3) Which of the following is a protein produced by a regulatory gene?
A) operon
B) inducer
C) promoter
D) repressor
E) corepressor
4) A lack of which molecule would result in the cell’s inability to “turn off” genes?
A) operon
B) inducer
C) promoter
D) ubiquitin
E) corepressor
5) Which of the following, when taken up by the cell, binds to the repressor so that the repressor no
longer binds to the operator?
A) ubiquitin
B) inducer
C) promoter
D) repressor
E) corepressor
6) Most repressor proteins are allosteric. Which of the following binds with the repressor to alter its
conformation?
A) inducer
B) promoter
C) RNA polymerase
D) transcription factor
E) cAMP
7) A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result
in
A) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.
B) complete inhibition of transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.
C) irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator.
D) inactivation of RNA polymerase by alteration of its active site.
E) continuous translation of the mRNA because of alteration of its structure.
8) The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when
A) there is more glucose in the cell than lactose.
B) the cyclic AMP levels are low.
C) there is glucose but no lactose in the cell.
D) the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.
E) the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low.
9) Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon
A) occurs continuously in the cell.
B) starts when the pathway’s substrate is present.
C) starts when the pathway’s product is present.
D) stops when the pathway’s product is present.
E) does not result in the production of enzymes.
10) For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur?
A) A corepressor must be present.
B) RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present.
C) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
D) RNA polymerase cannot be present, and the repressor must be inactive.
E) RNA polymerase must not occupy the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
11) Allolactose, an isomer of lactose, is formed in small amounts from lactose. An E. coli cell is
presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source.
Which of the following occurs when the lactose enters the cell?
A) The repressor protein attaches to the regulator.
B) Allolactose binds to the repressor protein.
C) Allolactose binds to the regulator gene.
D) The repressor protein and allolactose bind to RNA polymerase.
E) RNA polymerase attaches to the regulator.
12) Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organism’s survival
in which of the following ways?
A) organizing gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order
B) allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times
C) allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions
D) allowing young organisms to respond differently from more mature organisms
E) allowing environmental changes to alter the prokaryote’s genome
13) In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following?
A) turn off translation of their mRNA
B) alter the level of production of various enzymes
C) increase the number and responsiveness of their ribosomes
D) inactivate their mRNA molecules
E) alter the sequence of amino acids in certain proteins
14) If glucose is available in the environment of E. coli, the cell responds with a very low concentration
of cAMP. When the cAMP increases in concentration, it binds to CAP. Which of the following would
you expect to be a measurable effect?
A) decreased concentration of the lac enzymes
B) increased concentration of the trp enzymes
C) decreased binding of the RNA polymerase to sugar metabolism-related promoters
D) decreased concentration of alternative sugars in the cell
E) increased concentrations of sugars such as arabinose in the cell
15) In positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, the catabolite activator protein
(CAP) binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. What causes an increase in CAP?
A) increase in glucose and increase in cAMP
B) decrease in glucose and increase in cAMP
C) increase in glucose and decrease in cAMP
D) decrease in glucose and increase in repressor
E) decrease in glucose and decrease in repressor
16) There is a mutation in the repressor that results in a molecule known as a super-repressor because it
represses the lac operon permanently. Which of these would characterize such a mutant?
A) It cannot bind to the operator.
B) It cannot make a functional repressor.
C) It cannot bind to the inducer.
D) It makes molecules that bind to one another.
E) It makes a repressor that binds CAP.
17) Which of the following mechanisms is (are) used to coordinate the expression of multiple, related
genes in eukaryotic cells?
A) Genes are organized into clusters, with local chromatin structures influencing the expression of all
the genes at once.
B) The genes share a common intragenic sequence, and allow several activators to turn on their
transcription, regardless of location.
C) The genes are organized into large operons, allowing them to be transcribed as a single unit.
D) A single repressor is able to turn off several related genes.
E) Environmental signals enter the cell and bind directly to promoters.
18) If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to
A) be replicating nearly continuously.
B) be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis.
C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription.
D) be very actively transcribed and translated.
E) induce protein synthesis by not allowing repressors to bind to it.
19) Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of
A) genetic mutation.
B) chromosomal rearrangements.
C) karyotypes.
D) epigenetic phenomena.
E) translocation.
20) When DNA is compacted by histones into 10-nm and 30-nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact
with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin
must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity?
A) DNA supercoiling at or around H1
B) methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails
C) hydrolysis of DNA molecules where they are wrapped around the nucleosome core
D) accessibility of heterochromatin to phosphorylating enzymes
E) nucleotide excision and reconstruction
21) Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are
A) DNA methylation and histone amplification.
B) DNA amplification and histone methylation.
C) DNA acetylation and methylation.
D) DNA methylation and histone modification.
E) histone amplification and DNA acetylation.
22) During DNA replication,
A) all methylation of the DNA is lost at the first round of replication.
B) DNA polymerase is blocked by methyl groups, and methylated regions of the genome are therefore
left uncopied.
C) methylation of the DNA is maintained because methylation enzymes act at DNA sites where one
strand is already methylated and thus correctly methylates daughter strands after replication.
D) methylation of the DNA is maintained because DNA polymerase directly incorporates methylated
nucleotides into the new strand opposite any methylated nucleotides in the template.
E) methylated DNA is copied in the cytoplasm, and unmethylated DNA is copied in the nucleus.
23) In eukaryotes, general transcription factors
A) are required for the expression of specific protein-encoding genes.
B) bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box.
C) inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter and begin transcribing.
D) usually lead to a high level of transcription even without additional specific transcription factors.
E) bind to sequences just after the start site of transcription.
24) Steroid hormones produce their effects in cells by
A) activating key enzymes in metabolic pathways.
B) activating translation of certain mRNAs.
C) promoting the degradation of specific mRNAs.
D) binding to intracellular receptors and promoting transcription of specific genes.
E) promoting the formation of looped domains in certain regions of DNA.
25) Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains
that are also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to
be able to bind?
A) repressors
B) ATP
C) protein-based hormones
D) other transcription factors
E) tRNA
26) Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather
than prokaryotes because of which of the following?
A) Eukaryotic mRNAs get 5′ caps and 3′ tails.
B) Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, which is more stable in the cell.
C) Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns.
D) Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size.
E) Eukaryotic coded polypeptides often require cleaving of signal sequences before localization.
27) Which of the following experimental procedures is most likely to hasten mRNA degradation in a
eukaryotic cell?
A) enzymatic shortening of the poly-A tail
B) removal of the 5′ cap
C) methylation of C nucleotides
D) methylation of histones
E) removal of one or more exons
28) Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it?
A) a cyclin that usually acts in G1, now that the cell is in G2
B) a cell surface protein that requires transport from the ER
C) an mRNA that is leaving the nucleus to be translated
D) a regulatory protein that requires sugar residues to be attached
E) an mRNA produced by an egg cell that will be retained until after fertilization
29) In prophase I of meiosis in female Drosophila, studies have shown that there is phosphorylation of
an amino acid in the tails of histones of gametes. A mutation in flies that interferes with this process
results in sterility. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis?
A) These oocytes have no histones.
B) Any mutation during oogenesis results in sterility.
C) All proteins in the cell must be phosphorylated.
D) Histone tail phosphorylation prohibits chromosome condensation.
E) Histone tails must be removed from the rest of the histones.
30) The phenomenon in which RNA molecules in a cell are destroyed if they have a sequence
complementary to an introduced double-stranded RNA is called
A) RNA interference.
B) RNA obstruction.
C) RNA blocking.
D) RNA targeting.
E) RNA disposal.
31) At the beginning of this century there was a general announcement regarding the sequencing of the
human genome and the genomes of many other multicellular eukaryotes. There was surprise expressed
by many that the number of protein-coding sequences was much smaller than they had expected. Which
of the following could account for most of the rest?
A) “junk” DNA that serves no possible purpose
B) rRNA and tRNA coding sequences
C) DNA that is translated directly without being transcribed
D) non-protein-coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs with biological
function
E) non-protein-coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs without biological
function
32) Among the newly discovered small noncoding RNAs, one type reestablishes methylation patterns
during gamete formation and block expression of some transposons. These are known as
A) miRNA.
B) piRNA.
C) snRNA.
D) siRNA.
E) RNAi.
33) Which of the following best describes siRNA?
A) a short double-stranded RNA, one of whose strands can complement and inactivate a sequence of
mRNA
B) a single-stranded RNA that can, where it has internal complementary base pairs, fold into cloverleaf
patterns
C) a double-stranded RNA that is formed by cleavage of hairpin loops in a larger precursor
D) a portion of rRNA that allows it to bind to several ribosomal proteins in forming large or small
subunits
E) a molecule, known as Dicer, that can degrade other mRNA sequences
34) One way scientists hope to use the recent knowledge gained about noncoding RNAs lies with the
possibilities for their use in medicine. Of the following scenarios for future research, which would you
expect to gain most from RNAs?
A) exploring a way to turn on the expression of pseudogenes
B) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal recessive disease
C) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal dominant disease
D) creating knock-out organisms that can be useful for pharmaceutical drug design
E) looking for a way to prevent viral DNA from causing infection in humans
35) Which of the following describes the function of an enzyme known as Dicer?
A) It degrades single-stranded DNA.
B) It degrades single-stranded mRNA.
C) It degrades mRNA with no poly-A tail.
D) It trims small double-stranded RNAs into molecules that can block translation.
E) It chops up single-stranded DNAs from infecting viruses.
36) In a series of experiments, the enzyme Dicer has been inactivated in cells from various vertebrates
so that the centromere is abnormally formed from chromatin. Which of the following is most likely to
occur?
A) The usual mRNAs transcribed from centromeric DNA will be missing from the cells.
B) Tetrads will no longer be able to form during meiosis I.
C) Centromeres will be euchromatic rather than heterochromatic and the cells will soon die in culture.
D) The cells will no longer be able to resist bacterial contamination.
E) The DNA of the centromeres will no longer be able to replicate.
37) Since Watson and Crick described DNA in 1953, which of the following might best explain why the
function of small RNAs is still being explained?
A) As RNAs have evolved since that time, they have taken on new functions.
B) Watson and Crick described DNA but did not predict any function for RNA.
C) The functions of small RNAs could not be approached until the entire human genome was
sequenced.
D) Ethical considerations prevented scientists from exploring this material until recently.
E) Changes in technology as well as our ability to determine how much of the DNA is expressed have
now made this possible.
38) You are given an experimental problem involving control of a gene’s expression in the embryo of a
particular species. One of your first questions is whether the gene’s expression is controlled at the level
of transcription or translation. Which of the following might best give you an answer?
A) You explore whether there has been alternative splicing by examining amino acid sequences of very
similar proteins.
B) You measure the quantity of the appropriate pre-mRNA in various cell types and find they are all the
same.
C) You assess the position and sequence of the promoter and enhancer for this gene.
D) An analysis of amino acid production by the cell shows you that there is an increase at this stage of
embryonic life.
E) You use an antibiotic known to prevent translation.
39) In humans, the embryonic and fetal forms of hemoglobin have a higher affinity for oxygen than that
of adults. This is due to
A) nonidentical genes that produce different versions of globins during development.
B) identical genes that generate many copies of the ribosomes needed for fetal globin production.
C) pseudogenes, which interfere with gene expression in adults.
D) the attachment of methyl groups to cytosine following birth, which changes the type of hemoglobin
produced.
E) histone proteins changing shape during embryonic development.
40) The fact that plants can be cloned from somatic cells demonstrates that
A) differentiated cells retain all the genes of the zygote.
B) genes are lost during differentiation.
C) the differentiated state is normally very unstable.
D) differentiated cells contain masked mRNA.
E) differentiation does not occur in plants.
41) In animals, embryonic stem cells differ from adult stem cells in that
A) embryonic stem cells are totipotent, and adult stem cells are pluripotent.
B) embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, and adult stem cells are totipotent.
C) embryonic stem cells have more genes than adult stem cells.
D) embryonic stem cells have fewer genes than adult stem cells.
E) embryonic stem cells are localized to specific sites within the embryo, whereas adult stem cells are
spread throughout the body.
42) What is considered to be the first evidence of differentiation in the cells of an embryo?
A) cell division occurring after fertilization
B) the occurrence of mRNAs for the production of tissue-specific proteins
C) determination of specific cells for certain functions
D) changes in the size and shape of the cell
E) changes resulting from induction
43) Embryonic lethal mutations result in
A) phenotypes that prevent fertilization.
B) failure to express maternal effect genes.
C) death during pupation.
D) phenotypes that are never born/hatched.
E) homeotic phenotype changes.
44) Your brother has just purchased a new plastic model airplane. He places all the parts on the table in
approximately the positions in which they will be located when the model is complete. His actions are
analogous to which process in development?
A) morphogenesis
B) determination
C) induction
D) differentiation
E) pattern formation
45) The product of the bicoid gene in Drosophila provides essential information about
A) lethal genes.
B) the dorsal-ventral axis.
C) the left-right axis.
D) segmentation.
E) the anterior-posterior axis.
46) If a Drosophila female has a homozygous mutation for a maternal effect gene,
A) she will not develop past the early embryonic stage.
B) all of her offspring will show the mutant phenotype, regardless of their genotype.
C) only her male offspring will show the mutant phenotype.
D) her offspring will show the mutant phenotype only if they are also homozygous for the mutation.
E) only her female offspring will show the mutant phenotype.
47) Mutations in which of the following genes lead to transformations in the identity of entire body
parts?
A) morphogens
B) segmentation genes
C) egg-polarity genes
D) homeotic genes
E) inducers
48) Which of the following genes map out the basic subdivisions along the anterior-posterior axis of the
Drosophila embryo?
A) homeotic genes
B) segmentation genes
C) egg-polarity genes
D) morphogens
E) inducers
49) Gap genes and pair-rule genes fall into which of the following categories?
A) homeotic genes
B) segmentation genes
C) egg-polarity genes
D) morphogens
E) inducers
50) The bicoid gene product is normally localized to the anterior end of the embryo. If large amounts of
the product were injected into the posterior end as well, which of the following would occur?
A) The embryo would grow to an unusually large size.
B) The embryo would grow extra wings and legs.
C) The embryo would probably show no anterior development and die.
D) Anterior structures would form in both sides of the embryo.
E) The embryo would develop normally.
51) What do gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment polarity genes, and homeotic genes all have in
common?
A) Their products act as transcription factors.
B) They have no counterparts in animals other than Drosophila.
C) Their products are all synthesized prior to fertilization.
D) They act independently of other positional information.
E) They apparently can be activated and inactivated at any time of the fly’s life.
52) Which of the following statements describes proto-oncogenes?
A) Their normal function is to suppress tumor growth.
B) They are introduced to a cell initially by retroviruses.
C) They are produced by somatic mutations induced by carcinogenic substances.
D) They can code for proteins associated with cell growth.
E) They are underexpressed in cancer cells.