1. The police and other law enforcement agents (such as federal agents) are the of the criminal
justice process.
2. The is a federal-level law enforcement agency whose officers help implement federal
court rulings, transport prisoners, and enforce court orders.
3. The has jurisdiction over federal laws, such as espionage, sabotage, treason, civil
rights violations, kidnapping, and interstate transportation of stolen vehicles and property.
4. One of the primary goals of police work is to deter criminal behavior. However, the study
found that variations in police patrol had little effect on the crime patterns in the study districts.
5. involves assigning officers to a particular area to proactively investigate
suspicious activities and to enforce existing gun, drug, traffic, and related laws.
6. Information provided by a suspect that leads to the seizure of incriminating evidence is permissible if the evidence
would have been obtained anyway by other means or sources. This is termed .
7. A search is valid if it is made incident to a lawful arrest.
8. is an aggressive strategy in which police play an active role in identifying particular
community problems and developing strategies to counteract them.
9. Within the multitiered court structures of most states, courts review the criminal procedures of
trial courts to determine whether the offenders were treated fairly.
10. The is empowered to negotiate a guilty plea with the defendant, thereby ending the formal trial
process. This is termed “plea bargaining.”
11. is a type of indigent defense whereby appointments are made from a list of private attorneys
who accept cases on a judge-by–judge, court-by-court, or case–by–case basis.
12. The practice of occurs when defendants are denied bail because of the danger they
present to the community.
13. It has been argued that encourages defendants to waive their constitutional right to a trial.
14. allow the prosecution and defense to excuse jurors for no particular reason or for an
undisclosed reason.
15. The Amendment to the Constitution provides for the right to a speedy, public trial by an
impartial jury.
16. Also called the venire, is the initial list of persons chosen, which provides the state
with a group of citizens potentially capable of serving on a jury.
17. The questioning of one’s own (prosecution or defense) witness during a trial is known as
____________________.
18. The is the process in which a potential jury panel is questioned by the
prosecution and the defense to select jurors who are unbiased and objective.
19. In 1985 the Supreme Court ruled in that if a single act violates the laws of two states, the
offender may be punished for each offense under the dual sovereignty doctrine.
20. Evidence that was not used when the prosecution initially presented its case is referred to as
.
21. In Richmond Newspapers Inc. v. Commonwealth of Virginia (1980), the U.S. Supreme Court interpreted the
First Amendment to mean that members of the press (and the public) have a right to ___________________.
22. In the critically important case of , the Court granted the absolute right to counsel in
all felony cases.
23. In , the Court ruled that African American defendants accused of murdering
whites are entitled to have jurors questioned about their racial bias
24. The group called for jury duty from which jury panels are selected is called the
25. The right to be protected from was made applicable to the states through the Fourteenth
Amendment in the case of Benton v. Maryland.
26. Police and other law enforcement agents are termed the gatekeepers of society because:
a. Gatekeepers was a historic term associated with the London Metropolitan Police.
b. Police initiate contact with law violators.
c. Police provide security in American society.
d. Gatekeeping involves opening and closing a flow; thus, police discretion controls the gates of the justice
system.
27. Which of the following is considered to be the first state police force?
a. Connecticut State Police
b. Massachusetts Police
c. Pennsylvania State Police
d. Texas Rangers
28. Which of the following is not accurate regarding today’s top priorities of the Federal Bureau of Investigation?
a. protecting the United States from terrorist attacks
b. protecting civil rights
c. combating white-collar crime
d. combating public corruption at the federal level
29. In 1870, the U.S. Department of Justice became involved in policing when the attorney general hired investigators to
enforce . This eventually led to the formation of the FBI.
a. prohibition
b. the Mann Act
c. antislavery legislation
d. Philip Stahl Anti-Trust Act
30. Nearly all sheriffs’ departments provide basic law enforcement services and investigate crimes. Many sheriffs’
departments also maintain:
a. state sex-offender registries.
b. the county courts.
c. the county jail.
d. automated fingerprint identification systems.
31. Which of the following is not among the tasks performed by patrol officers?
a. enhance public safety by maintaining a visible police presence
b. promote public safety and crime prevention
c. inhibit the movement of traffic and people
d. maintain public order
32. A classic attempt to measure police patrol effectiveness was the Kansas City study. What did this study indicate
about the effectiveness of police patrol?
a. that proactive patrol reduced crime
b. that variations in patrol had little effect on crime patterns
c. that reactive patrol reduced crime but only in residential areas
d. that citizens’ attitudes toward police became more favorable as patrol increased
33. Assigning officers to a particular area to proactively investigate suspicious activities and to enforce existing gun,
drug, traffic, and related laws is termed:
a. strategic patrol.
b. proactive patrol.
c. directed patrol.
d. targeted patrol.
34. What is known about adding more police officers to help bring down the crime rate?
a. Adding police deters minor offenders but has no impact on violent crime.
b. Adding police increases citizens’ fear of crime.
c. Adding police has no impact on crime levels.
d. Adding police may reduce crime levels.
35. The investigation of crimes occurs in a variety of ways. Which of the following is not a practice of detectives to
investigate criminals?
a. becoming familiar with an offender’s modus operandi
b. working undercover and impersonating customers to look for illicit activities
c. having victims or witnesses identify offenders by viewing mug shots or through a lineup
d. responding to the initial call for help
36. Information provided by a suspect that leads to the seizure of incriminating evidence is permissible if the evidence
would have been obtained anyway by other means or sources. This is referred to as:
a. the public safety doctrine.
b. the plain view doctrine.
c. the Miranda evidence discovery rule.
d. the inevitable discovery rule.
37. Recent court rulings pertaining to Miranda warnings have:
a. led to the exoneration of a wave of convicted offenders who were illegally interrogated.
b. caused a backlog of appeals pertaining to the admissibility of evidence.
c. reduced police powers as they pertain to interrogation.
d. given police greater leeway in their actions.
38. The Supreme Court has used case law to define the boundaries of the Miranda warning since this landmark decision
was handed down. Which is inaccurate pertaining to these boundaries?
a. Suspects must be fully aware of all the possible outcomes of waiving their rights for the Miranda warning to
be considered to have been given properly.
b. Admissible evidence can be obtained without a Miranda warning if the information sought is needed to protect
public safety.
c. At trial, the testimony of a witness is permissible even if her or his identity was revealed by the defendant in
violation of the Miranda rule.
d. Once a criminal suspect has invoked his or her Miranda rights, police officials cannot reinitiate interrogation
in the absence of counsel.
39. When an officer does not have probable cause to arrest but her or his suspicions are legitimately aroused by the
unusual or suspicious behavior of an individual, the officer can:
a. request an arrest warrant.
b. perform a stop and frisk.
c. request immediate backup.
d. conduct a search incident to an arrest.
40. Under which circumstances can police officers not perform a warrantless search?
a. when consent to search is willingly given
b. when it is performed incident to a lawful arrest
c. if there is probable cause to believe an automobile was involved in a crime
d. when a housesitter allows the officers to enter and search the premises
41. A police officer can initiate an arrest when a crime has been observed or when an arrest warrant has been
issued. In either case, an arrest must be based on:
a. fundamental fairness.
b. plausible evidence.
c. reasonable suspicion.
d. probable cause.
42. Which of the following components is not an element of community-oriented policing?
a. identifying neighborhood problems
b. getting to know citizens
c. responding to calls for help
d. maintaining a police presence in the community
43. An aggressive policing strategy that identifies and focuses on a specific crime or specific criminals and then develops
strategies to counteract them is known as:
a. community policing.
b. problem-oriented policing.
c. intelligence-led policing.
d. community–led policing.
44. The typical state court structure includes lower courts that try , superior courts that try , and
appellate courts that review the procedures of trial courts to determine whether offenders were treated fairly.
a. traffic offenses, misdemeanor and felony cases
b. misdemeanor cases, felony cases
c. felony cases, misdemeanor cases
d. juvenile cases, adult cases
45. In the United States, what is the “court of last resort”?
a. a state’s supreme court
b. the Executive Office of the President
c. the U.S. Supreme Court
d. the U.S. Attorney General’s federal appeals court
46. When the U.S. Supreme Court words a decision in such a way that it becomes a precedent and must be honored by
all lower courts it is termed a:
a. certiorari decision.
b. hallmark decision.
c. writ decision.
d. landmark decision.
47. Who determines the charges to be brought against a suspect?
a. the police
b. the judge
c. the county magistrate
d. the prosecutor
48. Which of the following is not a role of the prosecutor?
a. determining the charges to be brought against a suspect
b. negotiating a guilty plea with the defendant
c. charging the jury
d. issuing a nolle prosequi
49. Which form of indigent defense involves a salaried staff of full- or part-time attorneys who provide services through
a public or private nonprofit organization or as direct government (court) paid employees?
a. contract counsel
b. assigned counsel
c. public defender
d. court advocate counsel
50. Which of the following is not a role or responsibility of the judge?
a. guiding the questioning of witnesses
b. settling questions of evidence and procedure
c. charging the jury
d. negotiating a plea bargain with the accused
51. A charge identifies the criminal activity, the facts of the case, and the circumstances of the arrest. What is this
document called in the case of misdemeanor offenses?
a. a bill of indictment
b. a complaint
c. an information
d. a nolle prosequi
52. The bail system goes back to English common law and is meant to ensure the appearance of the defendant at
trial. Who actually sets the amount of bail?
a. a probation officer
b. a prosecutor
c. a magistrate
d. a court bailiff
53. Some defendants are detained because they cannot make bail. If a defendant is denied bail because of the danger he
or she poses to society, the detention is termed:
a. anticipatory detention.
b. preemptive detention.
c. protective detention.
d. preventive detention.
54. Which of the following is not accurate pertaining to what is known about bail?
a. Bail penalizes indigent offenders who do not have the means to pay bond.
b. Failing to make bail appears to increase the risk of being convicted and the degree of punishment received.
c. Most states place no limit on the amount of bail that may be imposed.
d. The right to bail comes from the Sixth Amendment of the Constitution.
55. In felony cases, plea bargaining usually occurs:
a. after arrest and before arraignment.
b. between arraignment and the onset of a trial.
c. during the trial.
d. after the trial but before sentencing.