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CHAPTER 14
Prevention of Infectious Disease by Vaccination
Questions
14–1
_____ involves deliberate stimulation of the immune system and induction of protective
immunity to a particular disease-causing pathogen by mimicking infection in the absence of
disease.
a. variolation
b. attenuation
c. vaccination
d. conjugation
e. herd immunity.
14–2
Inactivation of viruses for vaccine use can be achieved by _____. (Select all that apply.)
a. irradiation
b. heat treatment
c. mutation
d. neutralization
e. formalin treatment.
14–3
An example of a live-attenuated virus vaccine is _____. (Select all that apply.)
a. vaccinia
b. Salk polio vaccine
c. measles vaccine
d. yellow fever vaccine
e. rabies vaccine.
14–4
(A) What is the difference between the Salk and Sabin polio vaccines? (B) Which one should be
used for an individual who has an immunodeficiency disease, and why?
14–5
In the context of providing protection against smallpox, describe (A) the similarities and (B) the
differences between variolation and vaccination. (C) Now explain the mechanisms by which
immunization with vaccinia virus provides protection against smallpox.
14–6
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An example of an inactivated virus vaccine is _____. (Select all that apply.)
a. Sabin polio vaccine
b. influenza vaccine
c. mumps vaccine
d. hepatitis B vaccine
e. rabies vaccine.
14–7
In order for a viral subunit vaccine to be effective _____. (Select all that apply.)
a. B cells must be activated
b. cytotoxic T cells must be activated.
c. neutralizing antibodies must be induced.
d. CD4 T cells must be activated.
e. NK cells must be activated.
f. it must be derived from viral surface components.
14–8
Indicate whether each of the following statements is true (T) or false (F).
___ a. The Bacille Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine is commonly used in the United States to
provide protection against tuberculosis.
___ b. BCG is a heat-killed strain of bovine Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
___ c. Lipopolysaccharide-deficient Salmonella typhi is used to vaccinate against typhoid fever.
___ d. The DTaP vaccine is composed of diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis toxoids in addition to
filamentous hemagglutinin, pertactin, and/or fimbrial antigen.
___ e. Capsular polysaccharide vaccines are equally effective in infants and adults, and stimulate
strong T-independent antibody responses.
___ f. A state of inflammation impairs effective immune responses to microbial products.
14–9
A conjugate vaccine is one that couples _____ to _____ so as to stimulate T-dependent antibody
responses.
a. polysaccharide; a protein carrier
b. a protein carrier; irradiated DNA
c. protein carrier; toxoids
d. adjuvant; toxoids
e. polysaccharide; filamentous hemagglutinin.
14–10
Which of the following descriptions are true of Freund’s complete adjuvant? (Select all that
apply.)
a. It is made up of killed Bordetella pertussis and mineral oil.
b. It is mixed with soluble protein to form a particulate emulsion.
c. It enhances systemic dispersal of soluble protein antigens.
d. It stimulates the NFB pathway in macrophages and dendritic cells through activating
NOD2.
e. It contains muramyl dipeptide, which induces a state of inflammation.
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f. It is approved for use in humans.
14–11
A major attraction of immune stimulating complexes (ISCOMs) as an adjuvant is that they
_____.
a. form insoluble particles that resist dispersion and degradation
b. enhance uptake by macrophages and delivery of antigen to endosomal compartments
c. deliver antigen to the cytosol for presentation by MHC class I
d. bind to respiratory epithelium and mimic viral routes of entry
e. bind to Toll-like receptors and initiate a state of inflammation.
14–12
The indirect protection of unvaccinated individuals as a consequence of sufficient prevalence of
vaccination in the population in which they reside is known as _____.
a. acquired immunity
b. herd immunity
c. suppressive immunity
d. indirect immunity
e. passive immunity.
14–13
_____ vaccines are the most effective at evoking memory responses against a virus in an
immunized host.
a. DNA
b. subunit
c. killed
d. live-attenuated
e. toxoid.
14–14
Which of the following vaccines is least likely to pose a risk in an individual with an
immunodeficiency?
a. Sabin polio vaccine
b. measles vaccine
c. hepatitis B vaccine
d. vaccinia vaccine
e. yellow fever vaccine.
14–15
Approximately one-quarter of individuals infected with hepatitis C _____.
a. develop a chronic infection of hepatocytes
b. are at risk of developing liver cancer
c. experience episodes of liver destruction and regeneration
d. require a liver transplant
e. mount an effective immune response and eradicate the virus.
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14–16
Indicate whether each of the following statements is true (T) or false (F).
___ a. An unsubstantiated association between the MMR vaccine and autism has led some
parents to choose not to vaccinate their children.
___ b. The hepatitis B vaccine is associated with cancer of the liver.
___ c. Acellular vaccines have fewer side-effects than cellular vaccines.
___ d. Recombinant DNA technology can be used to reduce the virulence of pathogenic viruses.
___ e. The Rotarix vaccine is a subunit vaccine composed of purified VP4 and VP7
glycoproteins of the human rotavirus.
___ f. Rotavirus is a double-stranded DNA virus that lends itself well to recombinant DNA
manipulation.
___ g. HIV vaccines aimed at enhancing neutralizing antibody production in the host are not
useful because HIV has a high mutation rate that permits evasion of host immunity.
14–17
Which of the following explain why the safety standards for vaccines are set higher than those
for drugs? (Select all that apply.)
a. Some vaccines can induce a disease state.
b. Vaccines provoke side-effects in otherwise healthy children.
c. Vaccines are much more costly to develop and test than most drugs.
d. Vaccination programs are targeted at large populations.
e. Subunit vaccines can potentially integrate into the host genome and activate host
oncogenes, leading to the development of cancer.
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Answers
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