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1. Parole is:
a.
only offered to an offender prior to serving time in prison.
b.
only offered to nonviolent offenders.
c.
the conditional release from confinement of an offender serving an indeterminate sentence.
d.
all of these choices.
2. The number of people on parole:
a.
is on an upward trend.
b.
declines each year.
c.
remains approximately the same each year.
d.
none of these choices.
3. In 1854, Walter Crofton, a retired navy officer, was sent to introduce the progressive state system at the prison at
Mountjoy, near Dublin. The complete program became known as the:
a.
Irish Mark System.
b.
Scottish Mark.
c.
Ticket to leave.
d.
Ticket to paradise.
4. Parole is based on which of the following principles?
a.
The state extends a privilege by releasing offenders from prison before their full sentence is served
b.
It is a contract with offenders in exchange for their promise to abide by certain conditions where they
return to prison to complete their sentences if they violate the contract
c.
The state controls parolees until they are dismissed from parole
d.
All of these choices
5. The types of parole discussed in the text are:
a.
discretionary parole and mandatory parole release.
b.
community release and halfway house release.
c.
limited parole and nonlimited parole.
d.
all of these choices.
6. In Maconochie’s system of graduated release, which of the following was the final stage?
a.
ticket of leave
b.
globalization
c.
good time
d.
reference
7. Discretionary parole is decided by:
a.
the warden.
b.
the courts.
c.
the parole board.
d.
the parole officer.
8. When an inmate is released when the unserved portion of the maximum prison term equals his or her earned
good time, this is known as:
a.
mandatory parole release.
b.
discretionary parole.
c.
limited parole.
d.
community release.
9. Most inmates leave prison before the completion of their sentence and are placed:
a.
in residential treatment.
b.
on parole.
c.
on house arrest.
d.
none of these choices.
10. Inmates can be released from prison for:
a.
expiration of their term.
b.
commutation of their sentence.
c.
court orders to relieve overcrowded prisons.
d.
all of these choices.
11. The duties of the parole board include:
a.
charging and sentencing the offender.
b.
aiding and supervising control of paroles in the community.
c.
all of these choices.
d.
none of these choices.
12. The parole board’s authority to grant or deny parole is based on:
a.
assessment of the risk of the inmate to the community.
b.
assessment of the parolees readiness to return to the community.
c.
both of these.
d.
neither of these.
13. Formal risk prediction instruments are known as:
a.
crime predictors.
b.
parole guidelines.
c.
parole predictors.
d.
crime guidelines.
14. When determining possible parole, the parole board looks at:
a.
the inmate’s crime.
b.
the institutional record.
c.
the inmate’s sincerity and readiness for release.
d.
all of these choices.
15. The salient factor score used by parole boards to predict the risk of recidivism is based on:
a.
the number of previous convictions.
b.
the age at current offense.
c.
drug dependency.
d.
all of these choices.
16. The salient factor score places inmates in the risk categories of:
a.
very good, good, fair, or poor.
b.
excellent, at risk, poor.
c.
good, better, best.
d.
poor, poorer, poorest.
17. The majority of adults on parole are:
a.
equal between males and females.
b.
female.
c.
male.
d.
none of these choices.
18. The majority of parolees were sentenced for:
a.
sex offenses.
b.
vehicle theft.
c.
murder.
d.
drug offenses.
19. An official panel that determines whether an inmate serving an indeterminate sentence is ready for parole is
known as:
a.
the parole board.
b.
the department of corrections panel.
c.
the correctional decision board.
d.
none of these choices.
20. Conditions of parole typically consist of:
a.
reporting changes of address and employment.
b.
not committing crimes.
c.
not being in possession of weapons.
d.
all of these choices.
21. Field officers work with parolees:
a.
in the community.
b.
in the prisons.
c.
both of these choices.
d.
none of these choices.
22. Technology used to aid supervision by parole agencies include:
a.
concealed weapons detection.
b.
remote alcohol and drug monitoring.
c.
GPS.
d.
all of these choices.
23. The most at-risk parolees are placed:
a.
in halfway houses.
b.
back in prison.
c.
on intensive supervision.
d.
all of these choices.
24. The average caseload of a parole officer is approximately:
a.
150 parolees.
b.
38 parolees.
c.
10 parolees.
d.
200 parolees.
25. Parole officers are able to:
a.
search person, places, or property of parolee.
b.
order arrests without probable cause of parolee.
c.
recommend revocation of parole for new crimes or for technical violations of parolee.
d.
all of these choices.
26. A parolee who violates the conditions of parole, and who has not committed a new crime, is returned to
prison on what type of violation?
a.
technical
b.
conditional
c.
discrimination
d.
advanced
27. A formal procedure that takes place when a parole board decides that the parole must end because the
offender committed a new crime or violated the conditions of parole is a:
a.
revocation of parole.
b.
parole denial.
c.
parole release.
d.
jury trial.
28. Who can issue a warrant once there is an alleged violation of parole?
a.
parole officer
b.
warrant officer
c.
police officer
d.
all of these
29. What level of proof is required in order to hold a parolee in custody prior to a revocation hearing?
a.
hunch
b.
reasonable suspicion
c.
probable cause
d.
proof beyond a reasonable doubt
30. What was determined by the court in Morrissey v. Brewer?
a.
the procedures for deciding who was eligible for parole
b.
the procedures for revocation of parole
c.
the procedures that parole officers must follow when searching a parolee
d.
the procedures for obtaining an arrest warrant for a parole violator
31. What percentage of offenders released from prison return within 3 years?
a.
less than 25 percent
b.
100 percent
c.
more than 50 percent
d.
around 10 percent
32. The offenders most likely to fail on parole are:
a.
chronic offenders.
b.
first-time offenders.
c.
offenders with prison sentences over 50 years.
d.
none of these choices.
33. Research shows that it is difficult for parolees to succeed once released from prison for which of the
following reasons?
a.
psychological and economic problems of parolees
b.
undereducated and unskilled parolees
c.
parolees’ lack family support systems
d.
all of these
34. Research shows that recidivism is affected by:
a.
personal and situational characteristics.
b.
incarceration experience.
c.
the period after release.
d.
all of these choices.
35. The Second Chance Act:
a.
allows technical violations to be overlooked.
b.
allows inmates to earn more money during incarceration.
c.
provides grant money for employment assistance, treatment, housing, and programming.
d.
all of these choices.
36. Restrictions placed on former felons that reduce the rights and privileges of those convicted of crimes are
referred to as:
a.
invisible bans.
b.
invisible laws.
c.
invisible punishments.
d.
invisible sanctions.
37. What type of laws creates civil disabilities for parolees when they return to the community?
a.
anti-establishment laws
b.
disenfranchisement laws
c.
minimum mandatory laws
d.
three-strike laws
Your state has a severe prison overcrowding problem. One option to alleviate this overcrowding is to
release inmates from prison early. Mr. Green, the head of the Department of Corrections in your state,
meets with Mrs. Jones, who oversees the agency that determines whether an inmate serving his or her
sentence is ready to be released early. They also discuss the requirements of the supervision of these
inmates once they are released.
38. This planned community release and supervision of incarcerated offenders before the expiration of their full
prison sentences is known as:
a.
furlough
b.
pardon
c.
parole
d.
probation
39. Mr. Green and Mrs. Jones come up with a system where they will review the cases of inmates who have
served their minimum sentence and those who have reached a rehabilitative level sufficient to deal with the
outside world. Mrs. Jones and the rest of her board will then meet with each inmate and decide who they
release early. This method is referred to as:
a.
automatic parole.
b.
discretionary parole.
c.
mandatory parole.
d.
selective parole.
40. Besides selecting the prisoners for early release, what other duties do Mrs. Jones and her employees
perform?
a.
They aid, supervise and provide community control of the parolees in the
community.
b.
They determine when to discharge each parolee.
c.
They determine if parole should be revoked.
d.
All of these.
41. What is the name of the agency that Mrs. Jones heads?
a.
department of corrections
b.
probation board
c.
early release board
d.
parole board
42. Mrs. Jones’s agency is an independent agency that is separate from the Department of Corrections.
Therefore, it follows the:
a.
autonomous model.
b.
consolidated model.
c.
integrative model.
d.
totalitarian model.
Ruth was just released from prison. She was released because the only time remaining on her sentence
was equal to the good time that she earned. She was in prison for more than 10 years and is reluctant to
return to her community. She does not have a job, has no permanent place to live, and is nervous that she
will go back to her old habits of hanging with the “wrong crowd” and getting into trouble. Because of
prison overcrowding, she must be released.
43. What is the type of release that Ruth received?
a.
automatic parole
b.
discretionary parole
c.
mandatory parole
d.
selective parole
44. Ruth is not the typical parolee because she is a female. What percentage of adult parolees are female?
a.
2 percent
b.
11 percent
c.
22 percent
d.
36 percent
45. All of the following are standard conditions of Ruth’s parole except:
a.
reporting to the parole officer within 1 month of prison release.
b.
not carrying weapons.
c.
reporting changes of address.
d.
not committing crimes.
46. After meeting with her parole officer, it is determined that Ruth requires a more extensive supervision than
is given for most parolees. Therefore, she is placed on:
a.
advanced supervision parole.
b.
extreme supervision parole.
c.
intensive supervision parole.
d.
special supervision parole.
47. Ruth is having a hard time complying with the conditions of her parole. She thinks that her parole officer has
too much control over her life and has violated her rights. Ruth’s parole officer can search which of the
following places without violating the requirements imposed by the Fourth Amendment?
a.
Ruth’s person
b.
Ruth’s home
c.
Ruth’s job
d.
all of these
48. The number of escapes from prisons is increasing due to untrained officers and poor security measures.
a.
True
b.
False
49. Parole boards never meet with the offenders during a grant hearing.
a.
True
b.
False
50. Inmates who maintain their innocence may find that denying responsibility for their crimes places their
release date in jeopardy.
a.
True
b.
False
51. Discretionary parole decisions are made at a parole grant hearing.
a.
True
b.
False
52. Employment of parole officers is expected to grow through 2014.
a.
True
b.
False
53. Parolees may be subjected to searches by parole officers and police.
a.
True
b.
False
54. Parole officers tend to be younger and less experienced in the criminal justice system than probation
officers.
a.
True
b.
False
55. All states allow parole officers to carry and use firearms
a.
True
b.
False
56. Parole officers have significant discretionary power.
a.
True
b.
False
57. A parolee does not have the opportunity to speak on his own behalf during revocation proceedings.
a.
True
b.
False
58. Revocation procedures begin when the parole officer requests a warrant based on an alleged violation of
parole.
a.
True
b.
False
59. Research shows that offenders who fail upon reentry into the community do so long after they are released
from prison.
a.
True
b.
False
60. The majority of offenders return to prison shortly after their release.
a.
True
b.
False
61. A growing portion of the correctional population consists of parolees who failed on the outside.
a.
True
b.
False
62. We know that most people fail on parole soon after they are released from prison; about 10 percent of all offenders are
arrested during their first month back in the community.
a.
True
b.
False
63. Examinations of statutory barriers indicate that as many as 300 occupations require licenses that are unobtainable by
persons with felony convictions.
a.
True
b.
False
64. Former inmates who get and keep a job are more likely to succeed on parole than those who are
unemployed.
a.
True
b.
False
65. Thirty-one states have passed legislation allowing the use of lifetime community supervision for targeted groups of
offenders, most notably sex offenders and offenders convicted of homicide.
a.
True
b.
False
66. The get-tough movement of the 1980s increased the statutory restrictions placed on parolees.
a.
True
b.
False
67. A major flaw of the Second Chance Act is that it fails to provide funding to study such topics as smart probation
projects, treatment of returning adults and juveniles with co-occurring substance abuse, and mental health disorders as is
done in other countries.
a.
True
b.
False
68. All 50 states restrict felons right to vote.
a.
True
b.
False
69. If the conditions of their release are violated, mandatory releasees can have their ________________
revoked and be returned to the institution to serve the remainder of their unexpired term.
70. When an inmate’s unserved portion of his or her maximum prison term equals good time, he or she is
released on ______________________.
71. The ____________________ has ruled that there is no legal right to parole.
72. Actuarial devices predicting the risk of recidivism based on information about the offender and crime are
known as ____________________.
73. An official panel that determines whether an inmate serving an indeterminate sentence is ready for parole is
the ____________________.
74. Parole violations that pertain to behavior that is not a crime, such as the failure to refrain from alcohol use,
are called ____________________.
75. Males make up ______percent of adult offenders on parole.
76. Parole agents have legal authority to search persons, places, and property without violating the requirement
imposed by the _____________________.
77. Parolees who have a higher risk of re-offending are typically placed on ____________________.
78. In ___________________, the Supreme Court ruled on procedures for revocation of parole.
79. A formal procedure that takes place when a parole board decides that parole must end because the offender
committed a new crime or violated the conditions of parole is known as ____________________ of parole.
80. The ____________________ of offenders return to prison shortly after they are released.
81. Most inmates _________________ soon after they are released from prison.
82. Civil disabilities facing parolees when they return to the community are known as ___________________.
83. The _____________________authorized various grants to government agencies and nonprofit groups to
provide employment assistance, substance abuse treatment, housing, and other services that can help reduce
violations of probation and parole.
84. Describe the two types of parole.
85. Explain the principles of parole.
86. What are the duties of a parole officer?
87. What are the characteristics of those on parole?
88. What types of devices can be used to monitor offenders in the community?
89. Why do people fail parole?
90. According to the research, what can be done to improve the effectiveness of parole?
91. Discuss the social barriers that offenders face when they return to the community.
92. Discuss the Second Chance Act.
93. What rights may offenders lose because of their criminal record?
