Chapter 1 – An Overview of Nutrition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which characteristic is most typical of a chronic disease?
a.
It has a rapid onset.
b.
It rarely has noticeable symptoms.
c.
It produces sharp pains
d.
It progresses gradually.
e.
It disrupts daily life, but is unlikely to be life-threatening.
2. What is the chief reason most people choose the foods they eat?
a.
cost
b.
taste
c.
convenience
d.
nutritional value
e.
habit
3. A child develops a strong dislike of noodle soup after she consumes a bowl while sick with the flu.
Her reaction is an example of a food-related ____.
a.
habit
b.
social interaction
c.
emotional turmoil
d.
negative association
e.
comfort eating
4. A person who eats a bowl of oatmeal for breakfast every day is most likely making a food choice
based on ____.
a.
habit
b.
availability
c.
body image
d.
environmental concerns
e.
cultural values
5. Which individual is making a food choice based on negative association?
a.
A tourist from China who rejects a hamburger due to unfamiliarity
b.
A child who spits out his mashed potatoes because they taste too salty
c.
A teenager who grudgingly accepts an offer for an ice cream cone to avoid offending a
close friend
d.
An elderly gentleman who refuses a peanut butter and jelly sandwich because he considers
it a child’s food
e.
An adult who refuses to eat foods that are not locally-sourced and organic
6. The motive for a person who alters his diet due to religious convictions is most likely related to his
____.
a.
values
b.
body image
c.
ethnic heritage
d.
functional association
e.
comfort
7. Farah is viewing an exciting sports match of her favorite team and eating because of nervousness. Her
food choice will most likely be based on ____.
a.
regional cuisines
b.
preferences
c.
emotional comfort
d.
positive association
e.
functional value
8. What term describes foods that contain nonnutrient substances whose known action in the body is to
promote well-being to a greater extent than that contributed by the food’s nutrients?
a.
fortified foods
b.
enriched foods
c.
functional foods
d.
health-enhancing foods
e.
bioavailable foods
9. Nonnutrient substances found in plant foods that may demonstrate biological activity in the body are
commonly known as
a.
bioenhancements
b.
inorganic fibers
c.
phytochemicals
d.
phytoactive chemicals
e.
nonnutritive additives
10. By chemical analysis, what nutrient is present in the highest amounts in most foods?
a.
fats
b.
water
c.
proteins
d.
carbohydrates
e.
vitamins and minerals
11. What type of nutrient is needed by the body and must be supplied by foods?
a.
nutraceutical.
b.
metabolic nutrient
c.
organic nutrient
d.
essential nutrient
e.
phytonutrient.
12. Which nutrient is an example of a macronutrient?
a.
proteins
b.
minerals
c.
water-soluble vitamins
d.
fat-soluble vitamins
e.
water
13. Which nutrient is classified as a micronutrient?
a.
minerals
b.
proteins
c.
alcohols
d.
carbohydrates
e.
fats
14. Which nutrient is an organic compound?
a.
salt
b.
water
c.
calcium
d.
vitamin C
e.
iron
15. An essential nutrient is one that ____.
a.
must be made in large quantities by the body
b.
can only by synthesized by the body
c.
cannot be made in sufficient quantities by the body
d.
is used to synthesize other compounds in the body
e.
must be both consumed and synthesized to be complete
16. The term organic, as related to compounds, would be best defined as ____.
a.
products sold at health food stores
b.
products grown without use of pesticides
c.
foods having superior nutrient qualities
d.
substances with carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen bonds
e.
substances that contain water
17. How much energy is required to raise the temperature of one kilogram (liter) of water 1°C?
a.
10 calories
b.
100 calories
c.
1 kilocalorie
d.
10 kilocalories
e.
100 kilocalories
18. Gram for gram, which class of nutrient provides the most energy?
a.
fats
b.
alcohols
c.
proteins
d.
carbohydrates
e.
vitamins and minerals
19. Food energy is commonly expressed in kcalories and in ____.
a.
kilojoules
b.
kilograms
c.
kilometers
d.
kilonewtons
e.
kiloliters
20. Units of energy used by most scientists and nutritionists, aside from those in the United States, are
expressed in ____.
a.
newtons
b.
liters
c.
kilojoules
d.
kilocalories
e.
grams
21. Approximately how many milliliters are contained in a half-cup of milk?
a.
50
b.
85
c.
120
d.
170
e.
200
22. A normal half-cup vegetable portion weighs approximately how many grams?
a.
5
b.
50
c.
100
d.
150
e.
200
23. A weight reduction regimen calls for a daily intake of 1400 kcalories, which includes 30 g of fat.
Approximately what percentage of the total energy is contributed by fat?
a.
8.5%
b.
15.0%
c.
19.0%
d.
25.5%
e.
32.0%
24. Which nutrient source will yields more than 4 kcalories per gram?
a.
plant fats
b.
plant proteins
c.
animal proteins
d.
plant carbohydrates
e.
animal carbohydrates
25. What results from the metabolism of energy nutrients?
a.
Energy is released.
b.
Body fat increases.
c.
Energy is destroyed.
d.
Body water decreases.
e.
Body mass increases.
26. Which statement best describes the composition of most foods?
a.
Most contain only one of the three energy nutrients, although a few contain all of them.
b.
They contain equal amounts of the three energy nutrients.
c.
They contain mixtures of the three energy nutrients, although only one or two may
predominate.
d.
They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, and those two are contained in equal
amounts.
e.
They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, and one is present in far greater
amounts than the other.
27. How many vitamins are known to be required in the diet of human beings?
a.
5
b.
8
c.
10
d.
13
e.
17
28. Which statement is true of minerals in their role as nutrients?
a.
They are organic.
b.
They yield 4 kcalories per gram.
c.
Some become dissolved in body fluids.
d.
Some may be destroyed during cooking.
e.
They are more fragile than vitamins.
29. How many minerals are known to be essential for human nutrition?
a.
8
b.
12
c.
16
d.
20
e.
24
30. Your friend Carrie took a daily supplement of vitamin C and tells you that she feels a lot better. Her
statement to you is best described as a(n) ____.
a.
anecdote
b.
theory.
c.
interpretation
d.
conclusion.
e.
hypothesis
31. What is the study of how a person’s genes interact with nutrients?
a.
genetic counseling
b.
nutritional genomics
c.
genetic metabolomics
d.
nutritional genetics
e.
biogenetic nutrition
32. How does a double-blind experiment work?
a.
Both subject groups take turns getting each treatment.
b.
Neither subjects nor researchers know which subjects are in the control or experimental
group
c.
Neither group of subjects knows whether they are in the control or experimental group, but
the researchers do know.
d.
Both subject groups know whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the
researchers do not know.
e.
Neither the subjects nor the persons having contact with the subjects know the true
purpose of the experiment.
33. In the scientific method, a tentative solution to a problem is called a ____.
a.
theory
b.
prediction
c.
hypothesis
d.
correlation
e.
deduction
34. What is one major weakness of a laboratory-based study?
a.
The costs are typically prohibitive.
b.
Findings are difficult to replicate.
c.
Results from animal testing cannot be applied to human beings.
d.
Experimental variables cannot be easily controlled.
e.
Causality cannot be inferred.
35. What is one benefit of using controls in an experiment?
a.
The size of the groups can be very large.
b.
The subjects do not know anything about the experiment.
c.
The subjects who are treated are balanced against the placebos.
d.
The subjects are similar in all respects except for the treatment being tested.
e.
The costs associated with the study are usually much lower.
36. What is one benefit of using a large sample size in an experiment?
a.
Chance variation is less likely to affect the results.
b.
The possibility of a placebo effect is eliminated.
c.
The experiment will be double-blind.
d.
The control group will be similar to the experimental group.
e.
Experimenter bias is less likely to have an effect.
37. You have been asked to help a top nutrition researcher conduct human experiments on vitamin C. As
the subjects walk into the laboratory, you distribute all the vitamin C pill bottles to the girls and all the
placebo pill bottles to the boys. The researcher instantly informs you that there are two errors in your
research practice. What steps should you have taken to conduct your experiment correctly?
a.
Giving all the boys the vitamin C and the girls the placebo, and telling them what they
were getting
b.
Distributing the bottles randomly, randomizing the subjects, and telling them what they
were getting
c.
Telling the subjects which group they were in, but preventing yourself from knowing the
contents of the pill bottles
d.
Preventing yourself from knowing what is in the pill bottles, and distributing the bottles
randomly to the subjects
e.
Allowing the subjects to decide whether they take Vitamin C or the placebo, and then
giving them the opposite of what they requested
38. An increase in exercise accompanied by a decrease in body weight is an example of a ____.
a.
variable effect
b.
positive correlation
c.
negative correlation
d.
randomization effect
e.
placebo effect
39. Before publication in a reputable journal, the findings of a research study must undergo scrutiny by
experts in the field in a process known as ____.
a.
peer review
b.
cohort review
c.
research intervention
d.
double-blind examination
e.
peer replication
40. What is the smallest amount of a nutrient that, when consumed over a prolonged period, maintains a
specific function?
a.
nutrient allowance
b.
nutrient requirement
c.
nutrient tolerable limit
d.
nutrient adequate intake
e.
nutrient recommendation
41. A group of people consumes an amount of protein equal to the estimated average requirement for their
population group. What percentage of people will receive insufficient amounts?
a.
10
b.
25
c.
33
d.
40
e.
50
42. A health magazine contacts you for your expert opinion on what measure best describes the amounts
of nutrients that should be consumed by the population. How should you reply?
a.
The Dietary Reference Intakes, because they are a set of nutrient intake values for healthy
people in the United States and Canada
b.
The Tolerable Upper Intake levels, because they are the maximum daily amount of a
nutrient that appears safe for most healthy people
c.
The Estimated Average Requirements, because they reflect the average daily amount of a
nutrient that will maintain a specific function in half of the healthy people of a population
d.
The Recommended Dietary Allowances, because they represent the average daily amount
of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of practically all
healthy people.
e.
The Estimated Energy Requirement, because it represents what will maintain energy
balance and good health in a person of a given age, gender, weight, height, and level of
physical activity
43. Recommended Dietary Allowances may be used to ____.
a.
measure nutrient balance of population groups
b.
assess dietary nutrient adequacy for individuals
c.
treat persons with diet-related illnesses
d.
calculate exact food requirements for most individuals
e.
recommend amounts of nutrients when there is insufficient evidence to determine the EAR
44. Recommended Dietary Allowances are based on the ____.
a.
Lower Tolerable Limit
b.
Upper Tolerable Limit
c.
Subclinical Deficiency Value
d.
Estimated Average Requirement
e.
Adequate Intake
45. The amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of about 98% of a population is known as the
a.
Adequate Intake.
b.
Daily Recommended Value.
c.
Tolerable Upper Intake Level.
d.
Recommended Dietary Allowance.
e.
Necessary and Sufficient Intake
46. The RDAs (Recommended Dietary Allowances) for nutrients are generally ____.
a.
more than twice as high as anyone needs
b.
the minimum amounts that average people need
c.
designed to meet the needs of almost all healthy people
d.
designed to prevent deficiency diseases in half the population
e.
reflective of current dietary preferences
47. What is a purpose of both the Recommended Dietary Allowance and Adequate Intake?
a.
Setting nutrient goals for individuals
b.
Identifying toxic intakes of nutrients
c.
Restoring health of malnourished individuals
d.
Developing nutrition programs for schoolchildren
e.
Improving population-level health
48. Which statement is true of nutrient intakes?
a.
Higher intakes are always safer than lower intakes.
b.
Intakes below the EAR decrease risk of deficiency.
c.
A typical intake falling between the RDA and the EAR is almost always adequate.
d.
Intakes above the RDA are required to be safe.
e.
Intakes above the UL put an individual at risk of toxicity.
49. What does the Tolerable Upper Intake Level of a nutrient represent?
a.
The maximum amount allowed for fortifying a food
b.
A number calculated by taking twice the RDA or three times the AI
c.
The maximum allowable amount available in supplement form
d.
The maximum amount from all sources that appears safe for most healthy people
e.
The amount that can be absorbed from a typical diet.
50. What set of values is used to recommend the average kcalorie intake that maintains population groups
in energy balance?
a.
Estimated Energy Requirement
b.
Adequate Average Requirement
c.
Recommended Dietary Allowance
d.
Acceptable Energy Distribution Range
e.
Tolerable Upper Energy Limit
51. The percentages of kcalorie intakes for protein, fat, and carbohydrate that are thought to reduce the risk
of chronic diseases are known as the ____.
a.
Estimated Energy Requirements
b.
Tolerable Range of Kilocalorie Intakes
c.
Estimated Energy Nutrient Recommendations
d.
Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges
e.
Healthy People Recommendations
52. What is the AMDR for carbohydrate?
a.
5-10%
b.
15–25%
c.
30–40%
d.
45–65%
e.
70–80%
53. What is the AMDR for protein?
a.
10–35%
b.
40–45%
c.
50–60%
d.
65–75%
e.
80–80%
54. What is the AMDR for fat?
a.
10–30%
b.
20–35%
c.
40–50%
d.
55–65%
e.
70–80%
55. The Dietary Reference Intakes may be used to ____.
a.
treat people with diet-related disorders
b.
assess adequacy of all required nutrients
c.
plan and evaluate diets for healthy people
d.
assess adequacy of only vitamins and minerals
e.
diagnose diet-related disorders
56. Which method is used to detect nutrient deficiencies?
a.
Nutrition assessment
b.
Nutrient stages identification
c.
Overt symptoms identification
d.
Outward manifestations assessment
e.
Nutritional diagnostic programs
57. As a registered dietitian at Jones Hospital, you are instructed to write a policy statement on nutrition
assessment procedures for all new patients. Which parameters would be most useful for the nutrition
assessment of individuals?
a.
Diet recall, food likes and dislikes, allergies, and favorite family recipes
b.
Anthropometric data, physical examinations, food likes and dislikes, and family tree
c.
Diet records that include what the patient usually eats will provide sufficient information
d.
Historical information, anthropometric data, physical examinations, and laboratory tests
e.
Diet records that take the “average” of what the patient reports and what an objective
observer reports
58. Which measure is anthropometric?
a.
body weight
b.
blood pressure
c.
blood iron level
d.
food intake information
e.
serum electrolytes
59. Which sequence of stages is most typical in the development of a nutrient deficiency resulting from
inadequate intake?
a.
Declining nutrient stores, abnormal functions within the body, and overt signs
b.
Abnormal functions within the body, declining nutrient stores, and overt signs
c.
Abnormal functions within the body, overt signs, and declining nutrient stores
d.
Declining nutrient stores, overt signs, and abnormal functions within the body
e.
Overt signs, abnormal functions, and declining nutrient stores
60. What type of deficiency is caused by inadequate absorption of a nutrient?
a.
primary
b.
clinical
c.
secondary
d.
subclinical
e.
chronic
61. A subclinical nutrient deficiency is defined as one that ____.
a.
shows overt signs
b.
is in the early stages
c.
shows resistance to treatment
d.
is similar to a secondary deficiency
e.
is of acute onset
62. The overall objective of the Healthy People program is to ____.
a.
establish the DRI
b.
identify national trends in food consumption
c.
identify leading causes of death in the United States
d.
set goals for the nation’s health over the next 10 years
e.
decrease health care costs
63. Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition?
a.
one
b.
four
c.
six
d.
eight
e.
nine
64. Which statement explains the association between a risk factor and the development of a disease?
a.
All people with the risk factor will develop the disease.
b.
The absence of a risk factor guarantees freedom from the disease.
c.
The more risk factors for a disease, the greater the chance of developing that disease.
d.
The presence of a factor such as heredity can be modified to lower the risk of degenerative
diseases.
e.
Risk factors tend to be short-lived, so their presence does not predict long-term risk of
disease.
65. What single behavior contributes to the most deaths in the United States?
a.
poor diet
b.
tobacco use
c.
alcohol intake
d.
risky sexual activity
e.
unsafe driving
66. Who would be the most appropriate person to consult for nutrition information?
a.
chiropractor
b.
medical doctor
c.
registered dietitian
d.
health food store manager
e.
nutrition consultant
67. Which statement best describes the legal limitations, if any, for a person who disseminates dietary
advice to the public?