Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 1
Chapter 1 – Chemistry and Measurement
1. What is a scientific theory?
A)
It is a collection of experimental data.
B)
It is an assertion of scientific fact.
C)
It is a guess or conjecture about natural phenomena.
D)
It is a fundamental relationship of nature.
E)
It is an explanation of natural phenomena that has undergone significant testing.
2. An untested explanation of a series of experimental observations is called _____.
A)
a hypothesis
B)
a theory
C)
a law
D)
an experiment
E)
the scientific method
3. Which of the following statements concerning experiment and explanation is/are true?
1.
A law is always given in the form of a mathematical expression.
2.
Once a hypothesis passes one or two tests it is considered a theory.
3.
Observation is a key component of the scientific method.
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
3 only
D)
1 and 2
E)
1, 2, and 3
4. A saline solution similar to that used for intravenous drips is made by dissolving 0.45 g
sodium chloride in 50.00 g water. Which of the following statements concerning the saline
solution and the law of conservation of mass is/are correct?
1.
The mass of the saline solution is greater than the mass of water.
2.
The mass of the saline solution is equal to the combined mass of sodium
chloride and water.
3.
The mass of the saline solution is greater than the mass of the sodium
chloride.
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
3 only
D)
1 and 2
E)
1, 2, and 3
5. A 19.0-g sample of lithium is completely burned in air to form lithium oxide. The mass of
lithium oxide must be
A)
less than 19.0 g.
B)
greater than 19.0 g.
C)
equal to 19.0 g.
D)
all of the above.
E)
none of the above.
6. A sample of silicon is burned in oxygen to form silicon dioxide. What mass of oxygen is
consumed if 57.76 g silicon dioxide is formed from 27.00 g silicon?
A)
30.76 g
B)
84.76 g
C)
1559.59 g
D)
0.47 g
E)
none of the above.
7. In a certain chemical reaction, 7.29 g of compound A is added to 5.70 g of compound B.
Once the reaction is complete, 3.60 g of compound A and 1.17 g of compound B remain.
What mass of products was produced?
A)
17.76 g
B)
4.53 g
C)
8.22 g
D)
3.69 g
E)
4.77 g
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 3
8. A 5.77 g sample of calcium carbonate completely decomposes into calcium oxide (lime) and
carbon dioxide gas when heated. If 3.23 g calcium oxide is produced, what mass of carbon
dioxide must have been formed?
A)
2.54 g
B)
9.00 g
C)
18.65 g
D)
0.56 g
E)
1.92 g
9. A sample of rubidium carbonate, weighing 7.00 g, requires 2.20 g of hydrogen chloride gas
to completely decompose to water, rubidium chloride, and carbon dioxide gas. The total
mass of water and rubidium chloride formed is 7.90 g and no hydrogen chloride or rubidium
carbonate remains. According to the law of conservation of mass, what mass of carbon
dioxide must have been formed?
A)
1.30 g
B)
0.90 g
C)
8.65 g
D)
17.10 g
E)
3.07 g
10. Sodium oxide reacts with water to produce sodium hydroxide. Suppose 18.6 g of sodium
oxide is combined with 33.7 g of water. When the reaction is complete, all the sodium
oxide has been consumed. According to the law of conservation of mass, which is a true
statement?
A)
The mass of sodium hydroxide produced must equal 52.3 g.
B)
The mass of unreacted water must equal 15.1 g.
C)
The mass of sodium hydroxide produced must equal 18.6 g.
D)
The mass of water consumed must equal 18.6 g.
E)
The mass of sodium hydroxide produced plus the mass of unreacted water must
equal 52.3 g.
11. After a certain chemical reaction has completed, it is found that 33.7 g of product was
produced. According to the law of conservation of mass, which statement must be true?
A)
The total mass consumed of all reactants was 33.7 g.
B)
The mass consumed of each reactant was 33.7 g.
C)
The mass of reactants consumed depends on the number of reactants present.
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 4
D)
Before the reaction started, there was 33.7 g total of all reactants.
E)
Before the reaction started, there was 33.7 g of each reactant.
12. The state of matter for an object that has both definite volume and definite shape is the
A)
gaseous state.
B)
solid state.
C)
mixed state.
D)
elemental state.
E)
liquid state.
13. The state of matter for an object that has a definite volume but not a definite shape is the
A)
elemental state.
B)
gaseous state.
C)
mixed state.
D)
liquid state.
E)
solid state.
14. Two types of pure substances are
A)
compounds and heterogeneous solutions.
B)
compounds and elements.
C)
elements and homogeneous solutions.
D)
compounds and homogeneous solutions.
E)
elements and heterogeneous solutions.
15. A sample that cannot be separated into two or more substances by physical means is
A)
a heterogeneous mixture.
B)
a compound.
C)
either a compound or an element.
D)
an element.
E)
a homogeneous mixture.
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 5
16. A solution is a
A)
pure element.
B)
pure mixture.
C)
heterogeneous mixture.
D)
homogeneous mixture.
E)
pure compound.
17. Which of the following is a mixture?
A)
a homogeneous solution of sugar dissolved in water
B)
bromine (a liquid with the formula Br2)
C)
sucrose (table sugar: the formula is C12H22O11)
D)
graphite (an allotrope of carbon)
E)
calcium oxide (CaO or lime)
18. A clear colorless liquid in an open beaker was heated to boiling. The liquid began to boil at
110°C, and as vapors escaped, the temperature of boiling gradually increased to 115°C, at
which point the heating was stopped. On the basis of this information, we can say that the
material in the beaker was a
A)
pure compound.
B)
homogeneous solution.
C)
pure substance.
D)
pure element.
E)
heterogeneous solution.
19. Heating a certain pure solid completely decomposes it into a solid and a gas, each of which
is also a pure substance. Which of the following is/are reasonable conclusions regarding
these observations?
1.
The solid is a compound and the gas is an element.
2.
At least one of the products is an element.
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 6
3.
The original solid is not an element.
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
3 only
D)
1 and 2
E)
1, 2, and 3
20. All of the following are examples of mixtures except
A)
supermarket salt.
B)
distilled water.
C)
soft water.
D)
hard water.
E)
drugstore hydrogen peroxide.
21. All of the following are homogeneous mixtures except
A)
sodium chloride and potassium chloride.
B)
hydrogen gas and chlorine gas.
C)
sodium chloride and potassium chloride solution.
D)
mercury-zinc solution.
E)
hydrochloric acid solution.
22. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?
A)
gasoline
B)
vegetable oil and water
C)
sugar dissolved in water
D)
A and C
E)
A, B, and C
23. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A)
The combustion of methane (a component of natural gas) is a chemical change.
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 7
B)
The melting of ice is a physical change.
C)
The dissolution of sugar in water is a chemical change.
D)
The decomposition of sugar into carbon and water when mixed with sulfuric acid
is a chemical change.
E)
The evaporation of gasoline is a physical change.
24. All the following are examples of chemical changes except
A)
aging.
B)
photosynthesis.
C)
fermentation.
D)
perspiration.
E)
respiration.
25. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
A)
alcohol evaporating
B)
water boiling
C)
skin burning in the sun
D)
iodine vaporizing
E)
ice melting
26. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
A)
silver tarnishing
B)
iodine sublimating
C)
alcohol boiling
D)
sucrose dissolving
E)
sodium chloride melting
27. The boiling of water is a
A)
physical change because the water merely disappears.
B)
chemical change because heat is needed for the process to occur.
C)
physical change because the gaseous water is chemically the same as the liquid.
D)
chemical and physical change.
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 8
E)
chemical change because a gas (steam) is given off.
28. Which of the following is a chemical property of tin?
A)
It is easily malleable.
B)
It melts at 232°C.
C)
It conducts electricity.
D)
Its density is 7.31 g/cm3.
E)
It dissolves in certain acids.
29. All the following are characteristic properties of phosphorus. Which one is a chemical
property?
A)
When exposed to air, white phosphorus will burn spontaneously, but red
phosphorus will not.
B)
Red phosphorus and white phosphorus are solid allotropic forms.
C)
The white form is soluble in liquid carbon disulfide but is insoluble in water.
D)
The red form of phosphorus is insoluble in both water and carbon disulfide.
E)
The red form melts at about 600°C, and the white form melts at 44°C.
30. The term that is related to the reproducibility (repeatability) of a measurement is
A)
accuracy.
B)
qualitative.
C)
quantitative.
D)
precision.
E)
property.
31. The property of a series of repeated measurements that is most directly related to precision
is
A)
the number of place holders in each measurement.
B)
the reproducibility of each measurement.
C)
the exactness of each measurement.
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 9
D)
the accuracy of each measurement.
E)
the number of significant figures in each measurement.
32. The figure below represents the bull’s eye target for an archer. The black dots represent
where the archer’s arrows hit:
How can this archer be described?
A)
precise but not accurate
B)
accurate and precise
C)
neither accurate nor precise
D)
accurate but not precise
E)
cannot be described from the data presented
33. Which of the following statements concerning accuracy and precision is/are correct?
1.
It is possible for a series of measurements to be both precise and inaccurate.
2.
Accuracy is a measure of how close multiple measurements are to each other.
3.
The more significant figures in a measurement the more accurate the
measurement.
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
1 and 2
D)
2 and 3
E)
1, 2, and 3
34. Two students determined the volume of a glass container three separate times (see table
below). The true volume of the container is 24.20 mL. Which statement correctly describes
the students’ results?
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 10
Student A
Student B
24.3 mL
24.89 mL
24.4 mL
24.87 mL
24.5 mL
24.88 mL
A)
Student A’s results are the most accurate. Student B’s results are the most precise.
B)
Student A’s results are the most accurate and precise.
C)
Student B’s results are the most accurate and precise.
D)
Student A’s results are the most precise. Student B’s results are the most accurate.
E)
The precision and accuracy of the two data sets are identical.
35. The number of significant figures in 1.9124 10–1 dm is
A)
5.
B)
6.
C)
3.
D)
7.
E)
4.
36. How many significant figures are there in the value 0.0863 m?
A)
4
B)
3
C)
2
D)
5
E)
6
37. How many significant figures are there in the measured value 69.380?
A)
2
B)
3
C)
6
D)
5
E)
4
38. The number of significant figures in 0.070700 10–4 is
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 11
A)
6.
B)
4.
C)
3.
D)
7.
E)
5.
39. How many significant figures are there in the number 8.400?
A)
1
B)
5
C)
3
D)
4
E)
2
40. How many significant figures are there in the number 0.04560700?
A)
4
B)
9
C)
8
D)
5
E)
7
41. The correct value of the expression is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
42. Express the result of the following calculation in scientific notation: 301 cm 439 cm
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
43. Express the result of the following calculation in scientific notation: 0.0263 cm2 ÷ 88.2 cm
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
44. Express the number 0.000460 in scientific notation.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
45. What is the best answer to the following expression?
(55.78 cm + 0.829 cm + 4.6666 cm – 52.4 cm)
A)
9 cm
B)
8.8756 cm
C)
8.876 cm
D)
8.88 cm
E)
8.9 cm
46. How many significant figures should be reported for the difference between 235.6708 mL
and 235.57 mL?
A)
7
B)
1
C)
2
D)
3
E)
5
47. The mass of a sample is measured by difference: first the mass of a beaker is measured
(73.0 g), and a small amount of the sample is added to the beaker. The mass of the sample
plus beaker is then measured to be 77.169 g. The number of significant figures that should
be reported for the mass of the sample is
A)
2.
B)
1.
C)
5.
D)
4.
E)
3.
48. What is the best answer to the following expression involving a sum of measurements?
(85.430 cm + 0.400 cm + 31.3 cm)
A)
117 cm
B)
117.1300 cm
C)
117.13 cm
D)
117.130 cm
E)
117.1 cm
49. What is the correct answer to the following expression?
5.45 10–10 + 5.74 10–12
A)
5.5074 10–10
B)
5.507 10–10
C)
6 10–10
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 14
D)
5.5 10–10
E)
5.51 10–10
50. What is the best answer to report for ?
A)
2.252 g/mL
B)
2.2518 g/mL
C)
2.3 g/mL
D)
2.25 g/mL
E)
2.25183 g/mL
51. The best answer to report for 171.95 – 82.1609 is _____.
A)
90
B)
89.7891
C)
89.789
D)
89.8
E)
89.79
52. Three different samples were weighed using a different type of balance for each sample. The
three were found to have masses of 0.5183761 kg, 9.342 mg, and 5076.6 g. The total mass
of the samples should be reported as
A)
5595.0 g.
B)
5595 g.
C)
5594.985 g.
D)
5594.985442 g.
E)
5594.9854 g.
53. The measurements of three different masses on three different balances are 1.21 kg, 536 mg,
and 23.14 g. The total mass should be reported as
A)
1233.68 g.
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 15
B)
1234 g.
C)
1233.7 g.
D)
1.23 103 g.
E)
1233.676 g.
54. Four samples were weighed using three different balances. (All are as accurate as the
precision indicates.) The masses are 0.94 kg, 58.2 g, 1.55 g, and 250 mg. The total mass
should be reported as
A)
1.000 kg.
B)
1.0000 kg.
C)
1.00 kg.
D)
1.00000 kg.
E)
1.0 kg.
55. The answer that should be reported for the total mass of solution when 98.66 mg of benzene
is added to 8.98 g of toluene is
A)
9.07866 g.
B)
9.08 g.
C)
9.0787 g.
D)
9.079 g.
E)
9.1 g.
56. The radius of a circle is measured to be 2.65 cm. How should the circle’s area be reported?
(A = r2)
A)
22.1 cm2
B)
22.062 cm2
C)
22.06182 cm2
D)
22.0618 cm2
E)
22.06 cm2
57. Which of the following statements concerning the SI system is/are correct?
Test Bank General Chemistry, 10th edition 16
1.
Prefixes are used to indicate a power of ten multiplier for a given SI base unit
of measurement.
2.
Degrees Celsius (C) is the SI base unit for temperature.
3.
The kilogram (kg) is the SI base unit for mass.
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
3 only
D)
1 and 3
E)
1, 2, and 3
58. Which of the following statements concerning the common temperature scales is/are true?
1.
Fahrenheit is an absolute temperature scale.
2.
The normal boiling point of water (100C) is equal to 273 K.
3.
The difference between the boiling point and freezing point of a substance is
the same for the Celsius and the kelvin scales.
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
3 only
D)
2 and 3
E)
1, 2, and 3
59. A student is working on converting a number that has a unit with the SI prefix milli- to a
unit that has the prefix mega-. Using your knowledge about the relative sizes that milli– and
mega- represent, how should the student convert the number?
A)
The student should multiply the number by 109.
B)
The student should multiply the number by 106.
C)
The student should divide the number by 106.
D)
The student should use the number as is.
E)
The student should divide the number by 109.
60. In the area of nano-chemistry, particles defined as nanoparticles range in size from 1-2500
nm. 1 nm is equivalent to 1 10–9 m. If the size of the particles that make up a particular
material is 6.47 10–8 cm, what is this size in nanometers?
A)
64,700 nm
B)
6.47 nm
C)
0.647 nm
D)
6470 nm
E)
647 nm
61. The distance between atoms is sometimes given in picometers, where 1 pm is equivalent to
1 10–12 m. If the distance between the layers of atoms in a particular compound is given
as 344 pm, what is the distance in cm?
A)
3.44 10–6 cm
B)
3.44 10–14 cm
C)
3.44 10–12 cm
D)
3.44 10–8 cm
E)
3.44 10–10 cm
62. Order the four metric units from smallest to largest.
1) joule 2) centijoule 3) nanojoule 4) millijoule
A)
1) < 2) < 4) < 3)
B)
3) < 4) < 2) < 1)
C)
4) < 3) < 2) < 1)
D)
2) < 3) < 1) < 4)
E)
1) < 2) < 3) < 4)
63. Which is the largest mass?
A)
10 dg
B)
10 cg
C)
10 pg
D)
10 ng
E)
10 mg
64. One-thousandth of a microgram is