A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)
Chapter 4 Testing and Selecting Employees
1) Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is
considered ________.
A) improper hiring
B) negligent hiring
C) appropriate depending upon the job
D) negligent intent
2) By some estimates, ________ percent of employees have stolen from their
employers.
A) 75
B) 80
C) 26
D) 49
3) Careful testing and screening lead to ________.
A) improved performance on your own part
B) screening out “undesirables”
C) improved motivation among all including those who were not hired
D) A and B only
4) Which of the following is not a type of personnel test?
A) ACO
B) cognitive abilities
C) motor and physical abilities
D) interest inventories
5) XYZ company uses a projective personality test on James. Subsequently,
James is denied employment. James can ________.
A) be angry but nothing else
B) claim the results were false
C) claim the results violate the ADA
D) B and C only
6) Which of the following is not a “big five” personality dimension?
A) inwardness
B) extroversion
C) agreeableness
D) conscientiousness
7) Which of the following is not an aspect of intercultural adaptability?
A) supervisory management
B) perception management
C) relationship management
D) self management
8) The leaderless group discussion is part of the ________.
A) management assessment center
B) personality test battery
C) Wonderlic test
D) None of the above.
9) A(n) ________ is a procedure designed to solicit information from a person’s
oral responses to oral inquiries.
A) interview
B) presentation
C) prospectus
D) invigilation
10) Which of the following is not a common interviewing mistake?
A) snap judgments
B) negative emphasis
C) attractiveness of candidate
D) All of the above.
11) Which of the following is a question that disabled persons would like
interviewers to ask during the interview?
A) Is there any kind of setting or special equipment that would facilitate the
interview process for you?
B) Provide an example of how you would use technology to carry out your job
duties?
C) Other than technology, what other kind of support did you have in previous
jobs?
D) All of the above.
12) Interviews should begin by ________.
A) establishing rapport
B) jumping right into the heart of the matter
C) highlighting what the interview will be doing
D) explaining the qualifications of the interviewer
13) Which of the following is recommended regarding interviewing questions?
A) ask open-ended questions
B) ask questions that can be answered yes or no
C) put words into the applicant’s mouth to try to trip them up
D) B and C only
14) What percentage of HR managers report checking applicants’ background?
A) 82
B) 80
C) 75
D) 68
15) Which of the following is a commonly verified background area?
A) legal eligibility for employment
B) dates of prior employment
C) military service
D) All of the above.
16) What is the first thing you should do to make reference checking more
productive?
A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structured reference checking form
D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references
17) What is the second thing you should do to make reference checking more
productive?
A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structured reference checking form
D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references
18) What is the third thing you should do to make reference checking more
productive?
A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structured reference checking form
D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references
19) Which assessment method has a high content validity?
A) cognitive ability tests
B) personality tests
C) structured interviews
D) job knowledge tests
20) Which assessment method that Dial Corp. used was shown to have a high
adverse impact?
A) cognitive ability tests
B) job knowledge tests
C) structured interviews
D) strength tests
21) Which assessment method can be conducted one-on-one or with a panel?
A) cognitive ability tests
B) job knowledge tests
C) structured interviews
D) All of the above.
22) What is the fourth thing you should do to make reference checking more
productive?
A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structured reference checking form
D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references
23) Which of the following is an example of a reliable test?
A) one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of
the test
B) one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on the same
test taken on a different occasion
C) one that yields different scores from two different people taking the test on
different occasions
D) one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way
24) If a person scores a 90 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 130 when
retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________.
A) valid
B) reliable
C) unreliable
D) inconsistent
25) If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on
another day, you might conclude that this test is ________.
A) valid
B) invalid
C) reliable
D) unreliable
26) ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers the same
test to the same people at two different points in time, and then compares the test
scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1.
A) Equivalent form estimate
B) Retest estimate
C) Internal consistency
D) Criterion validity
27) Which of the following describes using a retest estimate to assess reliability?
A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and
compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then
statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together
C) administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the
different people
D) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know
to do the job in question well
28) ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers two tests
deemed to be equivalent by experts and then compares the test scores from the
two tests.
A) Equivalent form estimate
B) Retest estimate
C) Internal comparison estimate
D) Criterion validity
29) ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers a test with
x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyzes the degree
to which responses to the items vary together.
A) Equivalent form estimate
B) Retest estimate
C) Internal consistency
D) Internal comparison estimate
30) When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which form of reliability
is likely being measured?
A) retest estimate
B) internal consistency
C) equivalent form
D) criterion validity
31) Which of the following describes using an equivalent-form estimate to assess
reliability?
A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and
compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then
statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together
C) administer two tests deemed the same by experts and then compare
participants’ test scores for test one and test two
D) different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different
people
32) Which of the following describes using an internal comparison estimate to
assess reliability?
A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and
compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then
statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together
C) administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the
different people
D) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know
to do the job in question well
33) Which of the following is not a reason that a test might be unreliable?
A) questions may not represent material
B) testing conditions could vary
C) the test may not predict actual performance
D) All of the above are reasons for unreliable tests.
34) The first step in the validation process is to ________.
A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job
B) analyze the job
C) administer tests
D) cross-validate
35) The second step in the validation process is to ________.
A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job
B) analyze the job
C) relate test scores and job criteria
D) cross-validate
36) The final step in the validation process is to ________.
A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job
B) analyze the job
C) relate test scores and job criteria
D) cross-validate
37) Which of the following tasks is not part of demonstrating content validity?
A) demonstrating that the tasks a person performs on the test represent the tasks
performed on the job
B) demonstrating that the tasks on the test are a random sample of tasks
performed on the job
C) demonstrating the conditions under which the person takes the test resemble
the work situation
D) demonstrating that the scores on the test are a good predictor of criterion like
job performance
38) Which of the following rights do test takers have under the American
Psychological Association’s standard for educational and psychological tests?
A) the right to confidentiality of test results
B) the right to informed consent
C) the right to expect that only qualified people will have access to the scores
D) All of the above.
39) ________ tests include tests of general reasoning ability and tests of specific
mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.
A) Personality
B) Achievement
C) Cognitive
D) Physical ability
40) Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal
fluency, and numerical ability are called ________ tests.
A) aptitude
B) intelligence
C) achievement
D) comprehensive
41) Jack is being tested on static strength, dynamic strength, body coordination,
and stamina during the selection period at UPS. UPS is using ________ tests.
A) personality
B) motor and physical abilities
C) achievement
D) comprehensive
42) ________ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and
reaction time.
A) Motor ability
B) Personality
C) Achievement
D) Interest
43) ________ tests measure a person’s level of introversion, stability, and
motivation.
A) Motor ability
B) Personality
C) Achievement
D) Cognitive
44) A ________ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates
perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise
each candidate’s potential.
A) work sampling event
B) video-based situational testing
C) management assessment center
D) retreat
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45) Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include
all of the following except:
A) the in basket.
B) leaderless group discussion.
C) tests of motor abilities.
D) interviews.
46) Employers may conduct background investigations and reference checks to
verify a candidate’s ________.
A) age
B) marital status
C) legal eligibility
D) All of the above.
47) Which of the following is not usually verified by an employer prior to hiring a
job candidate?
A) legal eligibility for employment
B) age
C) credit ratings
D) motor vehicle record
48) What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding
tolerance of others who steal and acceptance of rationalizations for theft?
A) personality tests
B) interest inventories
C) honesty tests
D) graphology
49) Employers can and should use all the tools listed below to attempt to detect
dishonest job applicants except:
A) polygraph tests.
B) credit checks.
C) background checks.
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D) honesty tests.
50) Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called
________.
A) numerology
B) astrology
C) handwriting analysis
D) polygraph output assessment
51) The ________ is considered by many to be the most important screening tool.
A) telephone reference
B) reference letter
C) selection interview
D) management assessment center
52) A(n) ________ is a procedure designed to obtain information from a person
through oral responses to oral inquiries.
A) writing test
B) work sample simulation
C) interview
D) reference check
53) When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an
applicant’s oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a(n) ________ interview.
A) selection
B) appraisal
C) exit
D) structured
54) What type of question is the following: “Can you tell me about a time when
you worked successfully in a team environment?”
A) situational
B) behavioral
C) stress
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D) puzzle
55) Which of the following statements is an example of a situational question?
A) “Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation.”
B) “How have you handled ethical dilemmas in the past?”
C) “Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue
the company. What would you do?”
D) “In this position, you are responsible for hiring and firing subordinates. Have
you ever fired anyone before? Tell me how you handled the situation.”
56) What type of question is the following: “Imagine that you have just been
assigned the task of winning the business of our competition’s biggest client. How
would you proceed?”
A) situational
B) behavioral
C) puzzle
D) directive
57) In a mass interview, a team of individuals interviews the candidate in a
________ fashion.
A) serial
B) sequential
C) panel
D) systematic
58) Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Human
Resource Management. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty
members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine
their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________ interview.
A) serial
B) panel
C) sequential
D) mass
