Which of the following does not refer to a method of factor rotation?
a. varimax
b. oblique
c. epsilon
d. orthogonal
e. quartimax
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Superficial analysis of a phenomena is a charge often leveled against exploratory
research.
b. Sample surveys are expensive in terms of both money and time.
c. Anyone can conduct survey research.
d. Descriptive studies are very flexible, allowing for changes in variables during the
research process.
e. A longitudinal study is a type of cross-sectional study.
Which of the following would NOT be considered a disadvantage of computer’‘assisted
interviewing?
a. inability to explain ambiguous questions
b. cannot solicit lengthy responses
c. cannot probe respondents to clarify vague responses
d. disk’‘by’‘mail administration is only useful for respondents who have computers
e. all of the above are disadvantages of computer’‘assisted interviewing
Use the traditional eigenvalue test to determine the number of factors that should be
retained in the factor analysis. How many factors should be retained?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. The three aspects of validity – pragmatic, content, and construct – are not only
conceptually independent but are in actual practice rarely related to each other.
b. A measure has been used repeatedly and has produced almost identical answers;
therefore this instrument is valid.
c. The essential difference between validity and reliability is that the former refers to the
degree of agreement between two measurements of the same trait by maximally
different methods while with the latter, the methods are maximally similar.
d. a and b.
e. a, b, and c.
Which one of the following statements regarding attitude measurement is FALSE?
a. The physiological reaction approach makes use of some unstructured or partially
structured stimuli such as word association tests or sentence completion tests.
b. The observation of behavior approach rests on the presumption that a subject’s
behavior is conditioned by his attitudes and thus we can use his observed behavior to
infer his attitudes.
c. The performance of “objective” tasks approach rests on the presumption that a
subject’s performance of a specific assigned task will depend upon his attitudes.
d. The self’‘report techniques rely on the subject’s own responses to a set of statements.
e. Self-report measures of attitude have their own sources of error.
Calories Consumed Weight of Adult Male in Pounds
per Day <119 120’‘199 >200 Total
__________________________________________________________________
<1499 16 20 4 40
1500’‘2999 4 90 16 110
>3000 0 10 40 50
__________________________________________________________________
Total 20 120 60 200
Based on the above information, calculate the expected number of adult males who
weigh 200 lbs. or more and consume 3000 or more calories per day.
a. 40
b. 15
c. 55
d. 20
e. none of the above
If there are 25 individuals in group 1 and 16 individuals in group 2, the proportional
chance criterion is approximately
a. .36.
b. .48.
c. .52.
d. .58.
e. 1.40.
Under which of the following conditions can the population mean be estimated without
error employing a stratified sample?
a. when the population is partitioned so that the number of elements in each stratum is
proportional to size of the sample to be taken from each stratum.
b. when the population is partitioned so that the elements in each stratum are equal
c. when the population is partitioned in such a way that the variances within strata are
equal
d. when the population is partitioned so that the elements in each stratum are normally
distributed
e. none of the above
Which of the following is an example of construct validation procedures?
When attempting to measure the personality of Chevrolet owners, researchers used the
California Personality Inventory.
a. As expected, scores on this test were found to correlate highly with scores on
Edwards Personal Preference Schedule but very low correlations were found with
scores on a Social Responsibility scale.
b. Scores of the California Personality Inventory were administered to the same subjects
on two different occasions and correlated.
c. Scores on the California Personality Inventory were used to predict which salesmen
would be more successful.
d. Scores on the California Personality Inventory were found to successfully predict
Chevrolet owners.
e. None of the above.
The most important advantage(s) of secondary data is (are)
a. it is appropriate for many purposes.
b. it is usually more thoroughly tested and evaluated.
c. it may involve additional field and office personnel.
d. possible cost and time savings.
e. provides a welcome rest in the library.
The after’‘only with control group design is very sensitive to the problems of
a. history and maturation.
b. statistical regression and selection bias.
c. maturation and experimental mortality.
d. selection bias and experimental mortality.
e. the main testing effect and history.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. The main sources of nonresponse bias are not-at-homes and refusals.
b. The type of incentive used to reduce nonresponse may create another potential bias.
c. The evidence that is available on nonresponse errors suggests that this error is
basically random and not systematic.
d. Using incentives to reduce the nonresponse rate may inflate response errors.
e. Not-at-homes and refusals are both sources of error in telephone surveys.
The distinguishing feature of a simple random sample is (are)
a. each population element has a known chance of being selected.
b. each population element has an equal chance of being selected.
c. every combination of n population elements is a sample possibility.
d. a and b.
e. a, b, and c.
A hypothesis
a. is a conjectural statement about the relationship between two variables that are
measurable or potentially measurable.
b. is a broad, vague problem statement.
c. cannot be discovered during research.
d. does not have clear implications for testing the relationship between variables.
e. is only found in the causal type of research.
The basic task of the data system in a DSS is
a. to provide each manager with the information the person needs in the exact form in
which the person needs it.
b. to capture relevant marketing data in reasonable detail and put that data in a truly
accessible form.
c. to provide information to managers on a regular basis.
d. to structure a problem so that is can be easily solved by a manager.
e. to retrieve data from internal sources.
Which of the following about perceptual maps is TRUE?
a. Perceptual maps can only be generated when respondents provide direct judgments
about the similarity of various objects, e.g., A is more similar to C than it is to B.
b. One encouraging empirical finding regarding the development of perceptual maps is
that the dimensions do not seem to depend upon the objects included in the stimulus set
used to secure the judgments.
c. The greater the number of dimensions used with a perceptual map in
multidimensional scaling, the better the fit of objects within the perceptual map.
d. a and c.
e. b and c.
Which of the following statements regarding multicollinearity is FALSE?
a. Multicollinearity is said to be present in a multiple regression problem when the
predictor variables are correlated among themselves.
b. If the data are highly multicollinear, there will be a tendency to judge many of the
predictor variables as not being related to the criterion variable when in fact they are.
c. The standard error of estimate of the least squares coefficients increases as the
dependence among the predictor variables increases.
d. A multicollinear condition within a data set increases the efficiency of the estimates
for the regression parameters.
e. Multicollinearity makes interpretation of the beta coefficients problematic.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Noncoverage nonsampling error is best treated by increasing the sample size that is
selected.
b. Noncoverage nonsampling error is essentially a sampling frame problem, and if clear,
complete, up-to-date sampling frames exist, noncoverage is not likely to be a problem.
c. While noncoverage can be a source of bias, overcoverage is not. In fact,
overcoverage may improve estimates as it means that the sample size is larger than
initially planned at no increase in cost.
d. Noncoverage bias is essentially eliminated with quota samples.
e. All of the above statements are false.
Which of the following statements pertaining to discriminant analysis is FALSE?
a. The “hit rate” in a confusion matrix indicates the proportion of sample units correctly
classified by the classification decision rule.
b. When attempting to assess the contribution of each variable to the discriminant
function one should use the raw score weights.
c. The cutting score is the score that divides the mean discriminant scores.
d. A confusion matrix is a two way table that contrasts actual group membership with
predicted group membership.
e. The mean discriminant score can be calculated by substituting the mean of each
variable in the derived discriminant function.
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Specialized marketing research firms are the largest producers of marketing facts.
b. The most important advantage of a division or group-level marketing research
department is its economy of scale.
c. The organization of the market research function should be dynamic and
ever-changing.
d. An important change that has been occurring in marketing research in recent years is
the transition from a total marketing intelligence perspective to a specific problem
perspective.
e. They are all false.
Which of the following would be considered part of a firm’s project strategy?
a. personal interviews in national consumer studies
b. mail questionnaires in a brand tracking study
c. telephone interviews when measuring brand awareness
d. all of the above
e. a and c