53) According to the Safe Drinking Water Act, which of the following drinking water standards
must be established by the Environmental Protection Agency for drinking water contaminants?
A) primary standards to protect human health and secondary standards to protect aesthetic
quality of drinking water
B) primary standards to protect agriculture and secondary standards to protect recreational water
C) primary standards to protect recreational water and secondary standards to protect human
health
D) primary standards to protect water used for health care facilities and secondary standards to
protect water used by commercial establishments
54) Which of the following is a feature of maximum contaminant level goals (MCLGs)?
A) They are enforceable.
B) They are the levels at which there are no potential adverse health effects.
C) They are the levels at which goals are based on environmental concerns.
D) They take into account the feasibility and cost of meeting the standard.
55) Maximum contaminant levels (MCLs) are developed from the maximum contaminant level
goals (MCLGs), but also take into account the ________.
A) purity of the water in its natural state
B) importance of the industry to the community
C) number of fatalities from impure water during the preceding calendar quarter
D) feasibility and cost of meeting the primary standard
56) Which of the following is provided by the “right to know” provisions of the Safe Drinking
Water Act?
A) the right of point source polluters to receive notice of a hearing
B) the right of consumers to obtain Environmental Protection Agency records
C) the right of households to receive annual reports on water contaminants and resulting health
problems
D) the right to free flow of scientific information between the Environmental Protection Agency
and the public drinking water suppliers
57) Water pollution today is controlled only by the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA).
58) Point sources are distinct places from which pollutants can be drawn out of navigable water.
59) Under the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, discharges without a permit or in amounts in
excess of those allowed by the permit may result in the imposition of criminal penalties.
60) Describe the Safe Drinking Water Act.
61) Which of the following pollutants causes poor coordination and lack of alertness?
A) lead
B) nitrogen oxide
C) carbon monoxide
D) sulfur dioxide
62) Which of the following pollutants contribute to the formation of acid rain?
A) lead
B) carbon monoxide
C) ozone
D) sulfur dioxide
63) The primary standards of the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQSs) are
designed to ________.
A) define all of the criteria pollutants
B) reduce conventional air pollutants
C) separate the criteria pollutants from the non-pollutants
D) protect public health
64) Which of the following actions follows the establishment of a Natural Ambient Air Quality
Standard (NAAQS)?
A) Each city has nine months to meet the standard.
B) Each state has nine months to establish a state implementation plan.
C) Each point source polluter has thirty days to reduce contaminant levels to the maximum
permissible.
D) Each environmental impact statement must include the new standard.
65) Which of the following best describes the relationship between primary and secondary
ambient air quality standards?
A) If the primary standards are met within three years of creation of a state implementation plan,
then the secondary standards need not be met.
B) Both the primary and secondary standards must be met within five years of their creation.
C) The primary standards must be met within three years of the creation of a state
implementation plan, and the secondary standards must be met within a reasonable time.
D) The primary standards must be met within a year of their creation, and the secondary
standards must be met as soon as economically feasible.
66) Environmental groups expressed strong opposition to proposed modifications of the
________ that would have allowed major utility plant modifications to be classified as routine
maintenance.
A) New Source Review program
B) Uniform Emission Standards program
C) New Motor Vehicles program
D) National Uniform Emissions Standards program
67) Acid rain is caused by ________.
A) gaps in the atmospheric ozone layer caused by the release of chlorofluorocarbons
B) excessive ozone emissions from automobile exhausts
C) emissions of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides from the burning of fossil fuels by electric
utilities
D) emissions of carbon monoxide and lead from the refining of heavy metals, coal, and other
carbon compounds
68) Which of the following is true of sulfur dioxide allowances?
A) Firms holding allowances cannot bank their allowances for a year.
B) A holder can substitute benzene for sulfur dioxide.
C) Firms holding allowances cannot sell their allowances to other firms.
D) A holder can emit one ton of sulfur dioxide for each allowance.
69) According to the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), the primary and
secondary standards are the same for sulfur dioxide.
70) What are primary and secondary National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?
71) The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (RCRA) focuses on the ________.
A) installation of new pollution control technology in new stationary sources
B) treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous waste
C) auctioning of carbon monoxide allowances
D) elimination of lead from automobile exhaust
72) The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act’s manifest program refers to the ________.
A) filtering of water that is manifestly unclean
B) installation of smokestack scrubbers to reduce emissions
C) regulations for the proper transportation and disposal of hazardous wastes
D) Environmental Protection Agency’s program of auctioning sulfur dioxide emission
allowances
73) The primary effect of the 1984 and 1986 amendments to the Resource Conservation and
Recovery Act was to ________.
A) make landfills a last resort for the disposal of many types of waste
B) have safer transportation for hazardous waste
C) create more efficient storage facilities for hazardous waste
D) provide licenses for producers and transporters of hazardous waste
74) The 1986 Resource Conservation and Recovery Act amendment requires that companies
report the amount of hazardous chemicals they release into the environment ________.
A) monthly
B) quarterly
C) biannually
D) annually
75) In 2004, environmental groups blamed the ________ for the increase in toxic chemicals
released into the environment.
A) lack of awareness of environmental problems
B) increase in global warming
C) lax standards of the Bush administration
D) lax standards of the Environmental Protection Agency
76) In the context of the enforcement of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, if the
state fails to act within ________ days, the Environmental Protection Agency takes action to
enforce the state’s requirements.
A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
77) To alleviate the problems created by improper waste disposal, the Comprehensive
Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA) authorized the
creation of the ________.
A) response fund
B) general fund
C) Megafund
D) Superfund
78) The ________ is a fund set up to cover the costs of cleaning up hazardous waste disposal
sites whose owners cannot be found or are unwilling or unable to pay for the cleanup.
A) response fund
B) Superfund
C) general fund
D) Megafund
79) Under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) of 1979, every manufacturer of a new
chemical must give the Environmental Protection Agency a ________.
A) pre-manufacturing notice (PMN) at least 90 days before the first use of the substance in
commerce
B) state implementation plan (SIP) at least 90 days before the first use of the substance in
commerce
C) pre-manufacturing notice (PMN) at least 60 days before the first use of the substance in
commerce
D) state implementation plan (SIP) at least 60 days before the first use of the substance in
commerce
80) Which of the following is true of the registration system used to control pesticide use?
A) A pesticide with general use registration can only be sold with usage restrictions.
B) Registration for a pesticide is good only for a year, at which time the manufacturer must apply
for a new registration.
C) A pesticide will not be registered if its composition warrants the claims made for it.
D) A pesticide will be registered if its label complies with the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and
Rodenticide Act.
81) Under the 1996 Food Quality Protection Act, a safe ________ level is one at which there is a
reasonable certainty of no harm from exposure to a pesticide.
A) disposal
B) interaction
C) residue
D) exposure
82) The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 regulates only nonhazardous waste.
83) According to the 1984 and 1986 amendments to the Resource Conservation and Recovery
Act, advanced treatment, recycling, incineration, and other forms of hazardous waste treatment
are all assumed to be preferable to land disposal.
84) The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act is enforced by the Environmental Protection
Agency.
85) The general fund is created primarily from taxes on corporations in industries that create
significant amounts of hazardous waste.
86) Toxic substances are regulated by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act.
87) A pesticide with general use registration can be sold without any restrictions.
88) State the ways in which a waste can fall under the manifest program. Based on the type of
waste, how must the generators proceed?
89) David owns a plot of industrial land. He allows it to be used as a dump site for industrial
waste. David eventually finds out that the waste is hazardous. In order to avoid trouble, he sells
the land without disclosing to the new owner the issues regarding the hazardous waste. Since
David is no longer the owner, will he be subject to investigation in the future? Give reasons for
90) Which of the following led to the passage of the Pollution Prevention Act of 1990?
A) the cost reduction in the methods used to regulate pollutants
B) the decline in the effectiveness of direct regulation
C) the monetary gain obtained as a result of previously-implemented environmental laws
D) the need for more effective sustainable development
91) The government’s role in encouraging the policy set forth by the Pollution Prevention Act of
1990 is one of providing a(n) “________” as opposed to the “________” of direct end-pipe
regulations.
A) end; means
B) carrot; stick
C) recommendation; mandate
D) path; destination
92) Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the business aspects of voluntary
pollution prevention?
A) Because of the involuntary nature of actions under the Pollution Prevention Act of 1990,
pollution prevention is becoming an important concept in business today.
B) In recognition of the “harsh realities” of their industry, chemical companies refuse to see
waste as avoidable.
C) There are remarkably few examples of firms that are “jumping” on the pollution prevention
“bandwagon.”
D) Dupont, America’s largest producer of chemicals, voluntarily cut its greenhouse gas
emissions by more than 50 percent from its 1991 levels.
93) ________ development, a term coined in 1987, refers to development that meets the needs of
the current generation without compromising the needs of future generations.
A) Synergistic
B) Sustainable
C) Managed
D) Organic
94) Sustainable development refers to development that meets the needs of the current
generation, but at the risk of compromising the needs of future generations.
95) Triple-bottomline accounting attempts to describe the social and environmental impact of an
organization’s activities in relation to the firm’s economic performance.
96) Describe the Pollution Prevention Act of 1990
97) Which of the following primary responses of the United States to environmental problems
involve written agreements between two or more nations that specify how particular issues are to
be resolved?
A) treaties
B) environmental policies
C) manifests
D) state implementation plans
98) The planet’s resources that are within no country’s borders and are available for everyone’s
use are called the global commons.
99) Treaties are implied agreements between two or more nations that specify how particular
issues are to be resolved.
100) State the three primary means by which environmental problems originating in one area of
the globe affect other areas.