Which of these is NOT an example of a parenchyma cell?
A) cells that can form clones in tissue culture of plants
B) support cells near the outside of nonwoody stems
C) edible cells in fruits and vegetables
D) tissue in leaves that photosynthesizes
Differences among organisms are caused by differences in the _____.
A) elemental composition from organism to organism
B) types and relative amounts of organic molecules synthesized by each organism
C) sizes of the organic molecules in each organism
D) types of inorganic compounds present in each organism
Exposure of zebrafish nuclei to meiotic cytosol resulted in phosphorylation of NEP55
and L68 proteins by cyclin-dependent kinase 2. NEP55 is a protein of the inner nuclear
membrane, and L68 is a protein of the nuclear lamina. What is the most likely role of
phosphorylation of these proteins in the process of mitosis?
A) They enable the attachment of the spindle microtubules to kinetochore regions of the
centromere.
B) They are involved in the disassembly and dispersal of the nucleolus.
C) They are involved in the disassembly of the nuclear envelope.
D) They assist in the movement of the centrosomes to opposite sides of the nucleus.
The switch of one B cell from producing one class of antibody to another class of
antibody that is responsive to the same antigen is due to _____.
A) the rearrangement of V region genes in that clone of responsive B cells
B) a switch in the kind of antigen-presenting cell that is involved in the immune
response
C) a patient’s reaction to the first kind of antibody made by the plasma cells
D) the rearrangement of immunoglobulin heavy-chain C region DNA
The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in _____.
A) splitting of the cell (cytokinesis) following mitosis
B) triggering the compaction and condensation of chromosomes
C) dissolving the nuclear membrane
D) separation of sister chromatids
A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic
engineering purposes by using _____.
A) a restriction enzyme (endonuclease) to cut the gene into shorter pieces
B) reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA
C) DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product
D) DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that code for a particular
polypeptide
The 1-m height attainable by Dawsonia moss is at the upper end of the size range
reached by mosses. What accounts for the relative tallness of Dawsonia?
A) the cuticle that is found along the ridges of “leaves”
B) “leaves” that are more than one cell layer thick
C) reduced size, mass, and persistence of the sporophytes, which allows gametophores
to grow taller
D) the presence of conducting tissues in the ‘stem”
An organism with a cell wall would most likely be unable to take in materials through
_____.
A) osmosis
B) active transport
C) phagocytosis
D) facilitated diffusion
Assuming that they all belong to the same plant, arrange the following structures from
largest to smallest (or from most inclusive to least inclusive).
1. spores
2. sporophylls
3. sporophytes
4. sporangia
A) 2, 4, 3, 1
B) 2, 3, 4, 1
C) 3, 1, 4, 2
D) 3, 2, 4, 1
Which of the following animal groups is entirely aquatic?
A) Mollusca
B) Crustacea
C) Echinodermata
D) Nematoda
What is the hydrogen ion (H+) concentration of a solution of pH 8?
A) 8 M
B) 8 x 10-6M
C) 10-8M
D) 10-6M
Can the atomic mass of an element vary?
A) No, it is fixed. If it changes at all then you have formed a different element.
B) Yes. Adding or losing electrons will substantially change the atomic mass.
C) Yes. Adding or losing protons will change the atomic mass without forming a
different element.
D) Yes. Adding or losing neutrons will change the atomic mass without forming a
different element.
In humans, the follicular cells that remain behind in the ovary following ovulation
become _____.
A) the ovarian endometrium that is shed at the time of the menses
B) a steroid-hormone synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum
C) the thickened portion of the uterine wall
D) the placenta, which secretes cervical mucus
The difference between vertical and horizontal transmission of plant viruses is that
vertical transmission is _____.
A) transmission of a virus from a parent plant to its progeny, and horizontal
transmission is one plant spreading the virus to another plant
B) the spread of viruses from upper leaves to lower leaves of the plant, and horizontal
transmission is the spread of a virus among leaves at the same general level
C) the spread of viruses from trees and tall plants to bushes and other smaller plants,
and horizontal transmission is the spread of viruses among plants of similar size
D) the transfer of DNA from a plant of one species to a plant of a different species, and
horizontal transmission is the spread of viruses among plants of the same species
Anabolic pathways _____.
A) are usually highly spontaneous chemical reactions
B) consume energy to build up polymers from monomers
C) release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers
D) consume energy to decrease the entropy of the organism and its environment
Kinetochore microtubules assist in the process of splitting centromeres by _____.
A) using motor proteins to split the centromere at specific arginine residues
B) creating tension by pulling toward opposite poles
C) sliding past each other like actin filaments
D) phosphorylating the centromere, thereby changing its conformation
Which of the following is true of embryonic stem cells but not of adult stem cells?
A) They normally differentiate into only eggs and sperm.
B) They can give rise to all cell types in the organism.
C) They can continue to reproduce for an indefinite period.
D) One aim of using them is to provide cells for repair of diseased tissue.
A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an
annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of the total number of
individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1000 individuals in one year.
A) 120 individuals added
B) 40 individuals added
C) 20 individuals added
D) 400 individuals added
A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at elevations above
2800 meters in the western United States. To understand why this tree grows only in
these specific places, an ecologist should _____.
A) study the anatomy and physiology of this species
B) investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high altitude
C) analyze the soils found in the vicinity of these trees, looking for unique chemicals
that may support their growth
D) collect data on temperature, wind, and precipitation at several of these locations for
a year
If you are interested in observing a relatively simple community structure in a clear
water lake, you would do well to choose diving into _____.
A) an oligotrophic lake
B) a eutrophic lake
C) a relatively shallow lake
D) a nutrient-rich lake
An example of ligand-gated ion channels is _____.
A) the spreading of action potentials in the heart
B) acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction
C) cAMP-dependent protein kinases
D) action potentials on the axon
Which of the following contradicts the one-gene, one-enzyme hypothesis?
A) A mutation in a single gene can result in a defective protein.
B) Alkaptonuria results when individuals lack a single enzyme involved in the catalysis
of homogentisic acid.
C) Sickle-cell anemia results in defective hemoglobin.
D) A single antibody gene can code for different related proteins, depending on the
splicing that takes place post-transcriptionally.
Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene?
A) a unit of heredity that causes formation of a phenotypic characteristic
B) a DNA subunit that codes for a single complete protein
C) a DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or
polypeptide
D) a discrete unit of hereditary information that consists of a sequence of amino acids
What is present in a shoot apical meristem region?
I) the region of cell division
II) immature buds and leaves
III) cells that will give rise to the protoderm, ground meristem, and procambium
A) only I
B) only II
C) only III
D) I, II, and III
The water vascular system of echinoderms _____.
A) functions as a circulatory system that distributes nutrients to body cells
B) functions in locomotion and feeding
C) is bilateral in organization, even though the adult animal is not bilaterally
symmetrical
D) is analogous to the gastrovascular cavity of flatworms
What is the biological significance of genetic diversity between populations?
A) Genes for traits conferring an advantage to local conditions make microevolution
possible.
B) The population that is most fit would survive by competitive exclusion.
C) Genetic diversity allows for species stability by preventing speciation.
D) Diseases and parasites are not spread between separated populations.
Which of the following experimental procedures would most likely reduce transpiration
while allowing the normal growth of a plant?
A) subjecting the leaves of the plant to a partial vacuum
B) increasing the level of carbon dioxide around the plant
C) putting the plant in drier soil
D) decreasing the relative humidity around the plant
Helicobacter pylori is a bacterial organism that causes ulcers and digestive
disturbances. How might they survive the acid pH of the stomach?
A) They secrete buffers to neutralize acid.
B) They burrow under the mucus layer that covers the stomach epithelium.
C) They take over the parietal cells.
D) They release chemicals that decrease acid production in the stomach.
Which component is a microfilament (actin filament) of the cytoskeleton?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Which of the following is true during a typical cAMP-type signal transduction event?
A) The second messenger is the last part of the system to be activated.
B) The hormone activates the second messenger by directly binding to it.
C) The second messenger amplifies the hormonal response by attracting more
hormones to the cell being affected.
D) Adenylyl cyclase is activated after the hormone binds to the cell and before
phosphorylation of proteins occurs.
DDT was once considered a ‘silver bullet” that would permanently eradicate insect
pests. Instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects. Which of these would have
prevented this evolution of DDT resistance in insect pests?
A) All habitats should have received applications of DDT at about the same time.
B) The frequency of DDT application should have been higher.
C) None of the insect pests would have genetic variations that resulted in DDT
resistance.
D) DDT application should have been continual.
In the ocean, on either side of the Isthmus of Panama, are thirty species of snapping
shrimp; some are shallow-water species, others are adapted to deep water. There are
fifteen species on the Pacific side and fifteen different species on the Atlantic side. The
Isthmus of Panama started rising about ten million years ago. The oceans were
completely separated by the isthmus about three million years ago.
In the following figure, the isthmus separates the Pacific Ocean on the left (side A)
from the Atlantic Ocean on the right (side B). The seawater on either side of the isthmus
is separated into five depth habitats (1-5), with 1 being the shallowest.
In which habitat should one find snapping shrimp most closely related to shrimp that
live in habitat A4?
A) A3
B) A5
C) B4
D) either A3 or A5
Elements found on the left side of the periodic table contain outer shells that are _____;
these elements tend to form _____ in solution.
A) almost empty; cations
B) almost empty; anions
C) almost full; cations
D) almost full; anions
What characteristic of short tandem repeats (STRs) DNA makes it useful for DNA
fingerprinting?
A) The number of repeats varies widely from person to person or animal to animal.
B) The sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from individual to
individual.
C) The sequence variation is acted upon differently by natural selection in different
environments.
D) Every racial and ethnic group has inherited different short tandem repeats.
Which trophic level is most vulnerable to extinction?
A) producer level
B) primary consumer level
C) secondary consumer level
D) tertiary consumer level