Campbell Biology in Focus, 2e (Urry)
Chapter 38 Nervous and Sensory Systems
38.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the anterior part of the animal, is
apparent in
A) Hydra.
B) cnidarians.
C) Planaria.
D) sea stars.
2) Choose the correct match of glial cell type and function.
A) astrocytes–metabolize neurotransmitters and modulate synaptic effectiveness
B) oligodendrocytes–produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the peripheral nervous
system
C) microglia–produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the central nervous system
D) radial glia–the source of immunoprotection against pathogens
E) Schwann cells–provide nutritional support to nonmyelinated neurons
3) The cerebrospinal fluid is
A) a filtrate of the blood.
B) a secretion of glial cells.
C) a secretion of interneurons.
D) cytosol secreted from ependymal cells.
E) a secretion of the hypothalamus.
4) The blood-brain barrier
A) filters the entry of solutes from the blood into the cerebrospinal fluid.
B) is formed by oligodendrocytes.
C) tightly regulates the intracellular environment of the CNS.
D) uses chemical signals to communicate with the spinal cord.
E) provides support to the brain tissue.
5) Myelinated neurons are especially abundant in
A) the gray matter of the brain and the white matter of the spinal cord.
B) the white matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord.
C) the gray matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord.
D) the white matter in the brain and the white matter in the spinal cord.
6) Cerebrospinal fluid can be described as all of the following except
A) functioning in transport of nutrients and hormones through the brain.
B) a product of the filtration of blood in the brain.
C) formed from layers of connective tissue.
D) functioning to cushion the brain.
E) filling cavities in the brain called ventricles.
7) The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic, or opposing, actions are the
A) motor and sensory systems.
B) sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.
C) motor and sympathetic systems.
D) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.
8) Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the ________ nervous
system.
A) sympathetic
B) somatic
C) sensory
D) parasympathetic
9) Exercise and emergency reactions include
A) increased activity in all parts of the peripheral nervous system.
B) increased activity in the sympathetic division and decreased activity in the parasympathetic
division.
C) decreased activity in the sympathetic division and increased activity in the parasympathetic
division.
D) increased activity in the enteric nervous system.
E) reduced heart rate and blood pressure.
10) The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is associated
with
A) resting and digesting.
B) release of epinephrine into the blood.
C) increased metabolic rate.
D) fight-or-flight responses.
E) intensive aerobic exercise.
11) What nervous system components would you expect to find in a cephalized invertebrate such
as a beetle?
A) a nerve net
B) nerve cords and transverse nerves
C) a brain, ventral nerve cords, and segmental ganglia
D) a brain, spinal cord, and sensory ganglia
12) Afferent neuronal systems include the
A) sensory systems.
B) entire peripheral nervous system.
C) autonomic nervous system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
E) sympathetic nervous system.
13) Imagine you are resting comfortably on a sofa after dinner. This could be described as a state
with
A) increased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.
B) decreased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.
C) decreased activity in the sympathetic nervous system and increased activity in the
parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems.
D) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system and decreased activity in the
parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems.
E) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, decreased activity in the
parasympathetic nervous system, and increased activity in the enteric nervous system.
14) The system that modulates excitation and inhibition of the smooth and cardiac muscles of the
digestive, cardiovascular, and excretory systems is the
A) central nervous system.
B) motor system.
C) autonomic nervous system.
D) sensory system.
15) Central coordination of the vertebrate biological clock resides in the
A) pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebrum.
D) cerebellum.
E) thalamus.
16) The endogenous nature of biological rhythms is based on the observation that animals
isolated from light and dark cues
A) continue to have cycles of exactly 24 hours in duration.
B) continue to have cycles of approximately 24 hours in duration — some more rapid, some
slower.
C) synchronize activity with whatever lighting cycle is imposed on them.
D) cease having any biological rhythms.
E) are independent of any genetic determinants.
17) The bottlenose dolphin breathes air but can sleep in the ocean because it
A) ceases breathing while sleeping and remains underwater.
B) sleeps for only 30 minutes at a time, the maximum interval for which it can cease breathing.
C) fills its swim bladder with air to keep its blowhole above the surface of the water while it
sleeps.
D) moves to shallow water to sleep, so it does not need to swim to keep its blowhole above the
surface of the water.
E) alternates which half of its brain is asleep and which half is awake.
18) The telencephalon region of the developing brain of a mammal
A) develops as the neural tube differentiates.
B) develops from the midbrain.
C) is the brain region most like that of ancestral vertebrates.
D) gives rise to the cerebrum.
E) divides further into the metencephalon and myelencephalon.
19) Increases and decreases of the heart rate result from changes in the activity of the
A) corpus callosum.
B) medulla oblongata.
C) thalamus.
D) pituitary.
E) cerebellum.
20) The unconscious control of respiration and circulation is associated with the
A) thalamus.
B) cerebellum.
C) medulla oblongata.
D) corpus callosum.
E) cerebrum.
21) Which of the following structures are correctly paired?
A) forebrain and medulla oblongata
B) forebrain and cerebellum
C) midbrain and cerebrum
D) hindbrain and cerebellum
E) brainstem and anterior pituitary gland
22) Hormones that are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland are made in the
A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.
23) The coordination of groups of skeletal muscles is driven by activity in the
A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.
24) The regulation of body temperature derives from the activity of the
A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.
25) The regulatory centers for the respiratory and circulatory systems are found in the
A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.
26) Hunger and thirst are under the regulatory influence of the
A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.
27) The suprachiasmatic nuclei are found in the
A) thalamus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) epithalamus.
D) amygdala.
E) Broca’s area.
28) How does fMRI measure brain activity?
A) by measuring changes in oxygen concentration
B) by measuring changes in pressure
C) by measuring changes in blood flow
D) by measuring changes in temperature
29) What would you expect to see in an fMRI analysis of person who is experiencing hunger?
A) large changes in oxygen concentration in the cerebellum
B) small changes in oxygen concentration in the limbic system
C) large changes in oxygen concentration in the hypothalamus
D) small changes in oxygen concentration in the cerebrum
30) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) is a psychedelic drug that stimulates the reward pathway.
Which of the following is a possible mechanism of how it affects neurons?
A) LSD molecules act as an agonist and bind to dopamine receptors.
B) LSD molecules block the release of dopamine from axon terminals.
C) LSD molecules catalyze the breakdown of dopamine in the synaptic cleft.
D) LSD molecules promote the reuptake of dopamine into the presynaptic neuron.
31) A researcher is interested in determining whether mice can remember the location of a piece
of cheese in a maze. Which of the following would be the best experiment to perform to test the
hypothesis that the limbic system is involved?
A) Place a healthy mouse and a mouse with a disrupted hippocampus in a maze and allow them
to find the cheese in the center of the maze. Repeat the next day and measure the time it takes for
the mice to find the cheese.
B) Place a healthy mouse and a mouse with a disrupted cerebellum in a maze and allow them to
find the cheese in the center of the maze. Measure how long it took each mouse to find the
cheese.
C) Perform an fMRI on a healthy mouse after allowing it to find the cheese in the center of the
maze.
D) Place a mouse with a disrupted amygdala in the maze and allow it to find the cheese at the
center of the maze. Repeat the next day, but this time put a bowl of water in the center of the
maze and measure how long it takes the mouse to find the water.
32) Calculation, contemplation, and cognition are human activities associated with increased
activity in the
A) pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebrum.
D) cerebellum.
E) spinal cord.
33) An organism that lacks neurons that perform integration
A) cannot receive stimuli.
B) will not have a nervous system.
C) will not be able to interpret stimuli.
D) can be expected to lack myelinated neurons.
34) The motor cortex is part of the
A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) spinal cord.
D) midbrain.
E) medulla oblongata.
35) In mammals, advanced cognition is usually correlated with a large and very convoluted
cerebral cortex, but birds are capable of sophisticated cognition because they have
A) a more advanced cerebellum.
B) a cerebellum with several flat layers.
C) a pallium with neurons clustered into nuclei.
D) microvilli to increase the brain’s surface area.
36) Wernicke’s and Broca’s regions of the brain affect
A) olfaction.
B) vision.
C) language and speech.
D) memory.
E) hearing and balance.
37) Choose the correct match of brain structure with one of its primary functions.
A) frontal lobe—decision making
B) occipital lobe—control of skeletal muscles
C) temporal lobe—visual processing
D) cerebellum—language comprehension
E) occipital lobe—speech production
38) If you were writing an essay, the part of your brain that would be actively involved in this
task would be
A) the temporal and frontal lobes.
B) the parietal lobe.
C) Broca’s area.
D) Wernicke’s area.
E) the occipital lobe.
39) Wernicke’s area
A) is active when speech is heard and comprehended.
B) is active during the generation of speech.
C) coordinates the response to olfactory sensation.
D) is active when you are reading silently.
E) is found on the right side of the brain.
40) Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the
A) brainstem.
B) medulla.
C) hypothalamus.
D) hippocampus.
41) Forming new long-term memories is strikingly disrupted after damage to the
A) thalamus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) hippocampus.
D) somatosensory cortex.
E) primary motor cortex.
42) When Phineas Gage had a metal rod driven into his frontal lobe, he experienced
A) loss of the ability to reason.
B) loss of all short-term memory.
C) greatly altered emotional responses.
D) loss of all long-term memory.
E) loss of his sense of balance.
43) An injury to the occipital lobe will likely impair the function of the
A) primary visual cortex.
B) thalamus.
C) optic chiasma.
D) sense of taste.
E) sense of touch.
44) A researcher is interested in determining whether mice can remember the location of a piece
of cheese in a maze. Which of the following results best supports the hypothesis that mice can
remember the location of the cheese?
A) an increase in the number of synapses between neurons in the hippocampus
B) an increase in the number of synapses between neurons in the hypothalamus
C) a decrease in the number of synapses between neurons in the hypothalamus
D) a decrease in the number of synapses between neurons in the hippocampus
45) A ligand for the umami receptor in the sense of taste is
A) glucose.
B) sodium ions.
C) potassium ions.
D) hydrogen ions.
E) monosodium glutamate.
46) The olfactory bulbs are located in the
A) nasal cavity.
B) anterior pituitary gland.
C) posterior pituitary gland.
D) brain.
E) brainstem.
47) The correct sequence of sensory processing is
A) sensory adaptation → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception.
B) stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation.
C) sensory perception → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory adaptation.
D) sensory perception → sensory transduction → stimulus reception → sensory adaptation.
E) stimulus reception → sensory perception → sensory adaptation → sensory transduction.
48) Artificial electrical stimulation of a human’s capsaicin-sensitive neurons would likely
produce the sensation of
A) cold temperature.
B) hot temperature.
C) tactile stimulus.
D) odor of pepper.
E) deep pressure.
49) Artificial electrical stimulation of a human’s menthol-sensitive neurons would likely produce
the sensation of
A) cold temperature.
B) hot temperature.
C) tactile stimulus.
D) odor of pepper.
E) deep pressure.
50) Tastes and smells are distinct kinds of environmental information in that
A) odorants are airborne and tastants are present in fluids.
B) humans can detect many more types of tastants than odorants.
C) distinguishing tastant molecules requires learning, whereas smell discrimination is an innate
process.
D) odorants bind to receptor proteins, but none of the tastant stimuli will bind to receptors.
51) Stimuli alter the activity of excitable sensory cells via
A) integration.
B) transmission.
C) transduction.
D) amplification.
52) Choose the correct sequence of the following events leading to the sensory processing of a
stimulus.
1. transmission
2. transduction
3. perception
4. adaptation
A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
B) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3
C) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4
D) 3 → 1 → 2 → 4
E) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3
53) Immediately after putting on a shirt, your skin might feel itchy. However, this perception
soon fades due to
A) sensory adaptation.
B) accommodation.
C) the increase of transduction.
D) reduced motor unit recruitment.
E) reduced receptor amplification.
54) A given photon of light may trigger an action potential with thousands of times more energy
because the signal strength is magnified by
A) the receptor.
B) an enzyme-catalyzed reaction.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) triggering several receptors at once.
55) The generation of action potentials in olfactory neurons initiated by odors drawn into the
nasal cavity is an example of
A) perception.
B) sensory transduction.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) amplification.
56) Umami perception would be stimulated by
A) sugar water.
B) chocolate milk.
C) a savory and rich cheese.
D) acidic orange juice.
E) salt water.
57) Proteins coded by a very large family of related genes are active in the sensory transduction
of
A) gustatory stimuli.
B) olfactory stimuli.
C) visual stimuli.
D) auditory stimuli.
58) After earning an A in your biology course, your instructor gives you a firm handshake. You
can feel the deep pressure of the handshake, and it is so strong it even starts to hurt a little. What
type(s) of receptor was (were) activated by the handshake?
A) mechanoreceptors only
B) thermoreceptors only
C) nociceptors only
D) thermoreceptors and nociceptors
E) mechanoreceptors and nociceptors
59) Statocysts contain cells that are
A) mechanoreceptors used to detect orientation relative to gravity.
B) chemoreceptors used in selecting migration routes.
C) photoreceptors used in setting biological rhythms.
D) thermoreceptors used in prey detection.
E) chemoreceptors used in acid-base balance.
60) An earthworm without a statocyst would not be able to
A) move.
B) sense light.
C) hear.
D) orient with respect to gravity.
E) respond to touch.