Campbell Biology in Focus, 2e (Urry)
Chapter 33 Animal Nutrition
33.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) The richest source of stored chemical energy in the body is
A) fat in adipose tissue.
B) glucose in the blood.
C) protein in muscle cells.
D) glycogen in muscle cells.
E) calcium phosphate in bone.
2) Animals that migrate great distances would obtain the greatest energetic benefit from storing
chemical energy as
A) proteins.
B) minerals.
C) carbohydrates.
D) amino acids.
E) fats.
3) Certain nutrients are considered “essential” in the diets of some animals because
A) only those animals use those nutrients.
B) the nutrients are subunits of important polymers.
C) they are required for animal diets, but these animals are not able to synthesize these nutrients.
D) the nutrients are necessary coenzymes.
E) only certain foods contain them.
4) To maintain adequate nutrition, animals require dietary access to certain amino acids. An
amino acid that is referred to as “nonessential” would be best described as one that
A) can be made by the animal’s body from other substances.
B) is not used by the animal in biosynthesis.
C) must be ingested in the diet.
D) is not readily absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract.
E) is not found in many proteins.
5) Which pair correctly associates a physiological process with the appropriate vitamin?
A) blood clotting and vitamin C
B) normal vision and vitamin A
C) synthesis of cell membranes and vitamin D
D) protection of skin from cancer and vitamin E
E) production of white blood cells and vitamin K
6) The fat-soluble vitamins include
A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin B12.
C) vitamin C.
D) iodine.
E) calcium.
7) A general rule relating the capacity of a specific animal’s digestive system to provide adequate
access to substrates for biosynthesis of cellular components, as well as fuel molecules needed for
ATP production, is that the animal should have access to
A) a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
B) a diet low in lipids and high in protein.
C) a low-calorie diet with a large intake of fluids, especially water.
D) a diet that matches chemical energy, essential nutrient, and organic molecule building blocks
per species.
E) a diet that maximizes vitamins and minerals.
8) Nucleic acid digestion yields nucleotides, whereas protein digestion yields amino acids; both
digestive processes
A) are catalyzed by the same enzyme.
B) add a water molecule to break bonds (hydrolysis).
C) require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower the pH.
D) require ATP as an energy source.
9) Ingested dietary substances must cross cell membranes to be used by the body, a process
known as
A) ingestion.
B) digestion.
C) hydrolysis.
D) absorption.
E) elimination.
10) The large surface area in the small intestine directly facilitates
A) secretion.
B) absorption.
C) elimination.
D) filtration
E) temperature regulation.
11) An advantage of a complete digestive system over a gastrovascular cavity is that the
complete system
A) excludes the need for extracellular digestion.
B) allows for specialized regions with specialized functions.
C) allows digestive enzymes to be more specific.
D) allows for extensive branching.
E) facilitates intracellular digestion.
12) Earthworms, grasshoppers, and birds all have a
A) gastric cecae.
B) larynx.
C) crop.
D) pharynx.
E) epiglottis.
13) Because the foods eaten by animals are often composed largely of macromolecules, this
requires the animals to have mechanisms for
A) excretion.
B) dehydration synthesis.
C) enzymatic hydrolysis.
D) regurgitation.
14) In the digestive system, peristalsis is
A) a process of fat emulsification in the small intestine.
B) voluntary control of the rectal sphincters regulating defecation.
C) the transport of nutrients to the liver through the hepatic portal vein.
D) a common cause of loss of appetite, fatigue, and dehydration.
E) smooth muscle contractions that move food along the esophagus.
15) Once humans ingest food, the first category of macromolecules to be chemically digested by
enzymes in the mouth is
A) proteins.
B) carbohydrates.
C) lipids.
D) nucleic acids.
16) Salivary amylase digests
A) protein.
B) starches.
C) monosaccharides.
D) glucose.
E) maltose.
17) Digestive secretions with a pH of 2 are characteristic of the
A) small intestine.
B) stomach.
C) pancreas.
D) liver.
E) mouth.
18) Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that
A) is manufactured by the pancreas.
B) helps stabilize fat-water emulsions.
C) splits maltose into monosaccharides.
D) begins the hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach.
E) is denatured and rendered inactive in solutions with low pH.
19) Upon activation by stomach acidity, the secretions of the parietal cells
A) initiate the digestion of protein in the stomach.
B) initiate the mechanical digestion of lipids in the stomach.
C) initiate the chemical digestion of lipids in the stomach.
D) include pepsinogen.
E) delay digestion until the food arrives in the small intestine.
20) Bile salts
A) are enzymes.
B) are manufactured by the pancreas.
C) emulsify fats in the duodenum.
D) increase the efficiency of pepsin action.
E) are normally an ingredient of gastric juice.
21) Complex nutrients are digested and then absorbed into the bloodstream as
A) disaccharides.
B) polymers.
C) monomers.
D) enzymes.
E) peptides.
22) An enzyme with high activity in an acidic environment is
A) amylase.
B) pepsin.
C) gastrin.
D) trypsin.
E) sucrose.
23) The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that the
A) processing of fats does not require any digestive enzymes, whereas the processing of
carbohydrates does.
B) fat absorption occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the small
intestine.
C) carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not.
D) most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the
blood.
E) fats, but not carbohydrates, are digested by bacteria before absorption.
24) Glandular secretions that are released initially as inactive precursors of digestive enzymes
are the
A) protein-digesting enzymes.
B) fat-solubilizing bile salts.
C) acid-neutralizing bicarbonate.
D) carbohydrate-digesting enzymes.
E) hormones such as gastrin.
25) Constipation can result from the consumption of a substance that
A) contains plenty of fiber.
B) promotes water reabsorption in the large intestine.
C) speeds up movement of material in the large intestine.
D) decreases water reabsorption in the small intestine.
E) stimulates peristalsis.
26) Historically inaccurate diagnosis of acid reflux disorders and gastric ulcers has been
improved by
A) pH monitoring.
B) X-ray technology.
C) the diagnosis and treatment of H. pylori infection.
D) colonoscopy.
E) sonography.
27) A hiatal hernia that disrupts the functional relationship between the smooth muscle in the
esophagus and that in the stomach would be most likely to increase the frequency of
A) gastric reflux.
B) premature entry of food into the duodenum.
C) excess secretion of pepsinogen.
D) increased stomach pH.
E) retention of food in the stomach.
28) The cells that secrete the acidic components of stomach juices are
A) the chief cells of the stomach.
B) the parietal cells of the stomach.
C) not needed for the transformation of pepsinogen to pepsin.
D) in the lumen of the stomach.
E) adding secretions along the esophagus.
29) Stomach cells are moderately well adapted to the acidity and protein-digesting activities in
the stomach by having
A) a thriving colony of H. pylori.
B) a thick, mucous secretion and active mitosis of epithelial cells.
C) a high level of secretion by chief cells.
D) a high level of secretion from parietal cells.
E) secretions that enter the stomach from the pancreas.
30) The molar teeth of herbivorous mammals are especially effective at
A) cutting.
B) ripping.
C) grinding.
D) crushing.
31) A group of animals in which a relatively long cecum is likely to be found is the
A) carnivores.
B) herbivores.
C) autotrophs.
D) heterotrophs.
E) omnivores.
32) Cattle are able to survive on a diet consisting almost entirely of plant material because
A) they are autotrophic.
B) cattle, like rabbits, re-ingest their feces.
C) they manufacture all 15 amino acids out of sugars in the liver.
D) cattle saliva has enzymes capable of digesting cellulose.
E) they have cellulose-digesting, mutualistic microorganisms in chambers of their stomachs.
33) Analysis of jawbones from the skeletal remains of a vertebrate animal reveal its dietary
patterns owing to
A) the position of muscle attachment sites.
B) the prevalence of specific kinds of teeth.
C) the size of the mouth opening.
D) the evidence of food molecules still present.
E) whether the mouth is the most anterior structure.
34) An enlarged cecum is typical of
A) rabbits, horses, and herbivorous bears.
B) carnivorous animals.
C) tubeworms that digest via symbionts.
D) humans and other primates.
E) tapeworms and other intestinal parasites.
35) Coprophagy, the nutrition-boosting ingestion of fecal material, is important for the
nutritional balance of
A) ruminants such as cows.
B) insects and arthropods.
C) rabbits and rodents.
D) squirrels and some rodents.
E) very large animals, such as elephants.
36) When the digestion and absorption of organic carbohydrates result in more energy-rich
molecules than are immediately required by an animal, the excess is
A) eliminated in the feces.
B) stored as starch in the liver.
C) stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles.
D) oxidized and converted to ATP.
E) hydrolyzed and converted to ADP.
37) Hypoglycemia occurs when there are low levels of glucose in the blood of a healthy human.
What is a way to “correct” hypoglycemia?
A) Increase the secretion of insulin.
B) Increase the secretion of glucagon.
C) Increase the secretion of both insulin and glucagon.
D) Decrease the secretion of both insulin and glucagon.
E) Decrease the secretion of thyroid hormones.
38) A fasting animal whose energy needs exceed those provided in its diet draws on its stored
resources in which order?
A) fat, then glycogen, then protein
B) glycogen, then protein, then fat
C) liver glycogen, then muscle glycogen, then fat
D) muscle glycogen, then fat, then liver glycogen
E) fat, then protein, then glycogen
39) Obesity in humans is most clearly linked to
A) type 1 diabetes and prostate cancer.
B) type 1 diabetes and breast cancer.
C) type 2 diabetes and muscle hypertrophy.
D) type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease.
E) type 2 diabetes and decreased appetite.
40) Standard metabolic rate (SMR) and basal metabolic rate (BMR) are
A) used differently: SMR is measured during exercise, whereas BMR is measured at rest.
B) used to compare metabolic rate between hibernating and nonhibernating states.
C) both measured across a wide range of temperatures for a given species.
D) both standard measurements of fat metabolism in mammals.
E) both measured in animals experiencing a resting and fasting state.
41) Independent of whether an organism is an endotherm or ectoderm, the least reliable indicator
of an animal’s metabolic rate is the amount of
A) food eaten in one day.
B) heat generated in one day.
C) oxygen used in mitochondria in one day.
D) carbon dioxide produced in one day.
E) water consumed in one day.
42) After eating a carbohydrate-rich meal, the mammalian pancreas increases its secretion of
A) glucagon.
B) mucus.
C) bile salts.
D) insulin.
43) Identical twins have identical genes. If one twin has type 1 diabetes, the other twin will also
have type 1 diabetes approximately 50% of the time. What can you conclude from this
information?
A) Genes are not the sole reason that individuals acquire type 1 diabetes.
B) Genes are the sole reason that individuals acquire both types of diabetes.
C) The hereditary factor in type 1 diabetes has not been well studied.
D) Twins with type 2 diabetes have lower insulin levels than 50% of twins with type 1 diabetes.
E) Twins with type 2 diabetes have a 50% lower probability of showing sugar in their urine than
those with type 1 diabetes.
44) Most individuals diagnosed with type 1 diabetes have an increased probability of having
inherited the disease from both parents. Additionally, Caucasians have the highest diagnosed rate
of type 1 diabetes. What can you conclude from this information?
A) Type 1 diabetes risk factors likely influence the risk factors for type 2 diabetes in Caucasians.
B) Type 1 diabetes is treated most easily in Caucasians.
C) Type 1 diabetes is easily cured in Caucasians.
D) Type 1 diabetes risk factors are likely more prevalent in Caucasians than in other races.