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1. The basic function of a neuron is to
a.
transmit nutrients.
b.
maintain dynamic equilibrium between glial cells and potassium ions.
c.
communicate.
d.
none of the above.
ANSWER:
c
2. Communication between two neurons occurs at the
a.
mitochondria.
b.
protein shell.
c.
nodes of Ranvier.
d.
synapse.
ANSWER:
d
3. Electroencephalographic (EEG) recordings are actually records of
a.
motor end plates.
b.
action potentials.
c.
K+ ions.
d.
none of the above.
ANSWER:
b
4. Voltage-sensitive proteins
a.
are responsive to presence of voltage in their environment.
b.
change shape and open in the presence of voltage in their environment.
c.
a & b
d.
none of the above.
ANSWER:
c
5. The molecular “fuel” for active transport is
a.
adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
b.
monosodium glutamate (MSG).
c.
lysergic acid diethylamine (LSD).
d.
acetylcholinesterase (ACHE).
ANSWER:
a
6. Adenosine triphosphate is a direct product of
a.
the synaptic dyad.
b.
gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA).
c.
cellular mitochondria.
d.
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
ANSWER:
c
7. Active cellular transport
a.
is required to adjust the ion balance between intra- and extracellular environments.
b.
involves the use of sodium-potassium pumps.
c.
moves sodium out of the cell.
d.
all of the above.
ANSWER:
d
8. An action potential is
a.
the return to baseline voltage that occurs following depolarization.
b.
a change in electrical potential that occurs when the cell membrane is stimulated adequately to permit ion
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exchange between intra- and extracellular spaces.
c.
the threshold phenomenon associated with movement in muscle.
d.
none of the above.
ANSWER:
b
9. The period following depolarization when a neuron cannot fire is termed the
a.
absolutely (absolute) refractory period.
b.
relatively (relative) refractory period.
c.
hypostyle (ascending) refractory period.
d.
adductory (closing) refractory period.
ANSWER:
a
10. The period following depolarization of a neuron during which a neuron can fire, but requires a higher level of
stimulation than required for the initial depolarization, is the
a.
primary refractory period.
b.
secondary refractory period.
c.
absolutely (absolute) refractory period.
d.
relatively (relative) refractory period.
ANSWER:
d
11. An action potential causes
a.
synaptic vesicles to migrate to the synaptic membrane.
b.
neurotransmitter to be released into the synaptic cleft.
c.
a & b
d.
none of the above.
ANSWER:
c
12. In biological systems, voltage is the product of
a.
ion movement.
b.
myelin.
c.
Schwann cells.
d.
the neurotransmitter.
ANSWER:
a
13. A neuron can fire approximately once every
a.
1 ms.
b.
10 ms.
c.
100 ms.
d.
1,000 ms.
ANSWER:
d
14. Neurotransmitter substance
a.
leaves the presynaptic neuron, activates ion channels, and enters the postsynaptic neuron.
b.
leaves the presynaptic neuron, activates ion channels, and then is reabsorbed into the presynaptic neuron.
c.
leaves the presynaptic neuron, activates ion channels, and then is absorbed into the lymphatic system.
d.
leaves the postsynaptic neuron, activates ion channels, and then is absorbed into the presynaptic neuron.
ANSWER:
b
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15. EPSP refers to
a.
excitatory presummative potential.
b.
excitatory perisynaptic potential.
c.
excitatory presynaptic potential.
d.
excitatory postsynaptic potential.
ANSWER:
d
16. IPSP refers to
a.
a potential that is excitatory in nature.
b.
use of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACH).
c.
an inhibitory potential.
d.
an input potential.
ANSWER:
c
17. Excitation causes
a.
depolarization.
b.
hyperpolarization.
c.
repolarization.
d.
none of the above.
ANSWER:
a
18. Inhibition causes
a.
depolarization.
b.
hyperpolarization.
c.
repolarization.
d.
none of the above.
ANSWER:
b
19. Because an action potential always results in the same neural response,
a.
the neuron can only fire during inhibition.
b.
the neuron cannot be used to differentiate stimuli.
c.
the neuron is capable of representing differences in input only through rate of response.
d.
none of the above.
ANSWER:
c
20. Myelinated fibers conduct the wave of depolarization more rapidly than demyelinated fibers
a.
because the lipids that make up myelin are hydrophobic in nature.
b.
primarily due to saltatory conduction.
c.
because myelin serves as an electrical conductor.
d.
because depolarization occurs before hyperpolarization.
ANSWER:
b
21. In the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle,
a.
acetylcholine (ACH) activates muscle function.
b.
gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) activates muscle function.
c.
dopamine (DA) activates muscle function.
d.
none of the above.
ANSWER:
a
22. An action potential at the motor end plate
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a.
results from the activation of troponin.
b.
causes calcium to be released into the environment of muscle fibers.
c.
a & b
d.
none of the above.
ANSWER:
b
23. For fine movement,
a.
only a limited number of muscle fibers need be recruited.
b.
typically fast-twitch fibers will be recruited.
c.
a & b
d.
none of the above.
ANSWER:
c
24. Slow-twitch muscle fibers
a.
remain activated up to five times longer than fast-twitch muscles.
b.
consist mostly of myosin.
c.
do not respond to calcium released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
d.
all of the above.
ANSWER:
a
25. A major difference between slow- and fast-twitch fibers is that
a.
one neuron may innervate thousands of slow-twitch fibers.
b.
one neuron may innervate as few as 10 fast-twitch fibers.
c.
slow-twitch fibers are important for sustained contraction.
d.
all of the above.
ANSWER:
d
26. ____________________ are atoms that have either lost or gained an electron (negative particle), causing them to
acquire either a positive or a negative charge.
ANSWER:
Ions
27. ____________________ relates to the ease with which ions may pass through a membrane.
ANSWER:
Permeability
28. ____________________ proteins open when they receive adequate electrical stimulation.
ANSWER:
Voltage-sensitive
29. A potential difference of –70 mV between the intracellular and interstitial spaces is found at ____________________
potential.
ANSWER:
resting membrane
30. A(n) ____________________ potential is a change in electrical potential that occurs when the cell membrane is
stimulated adequately to permit ion exchange between intra- and extracellular spaces.
ANSWER:
action
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31. The ____________________ period is the time during which the cell membrane cannot be stimulated to depolarize.
ANSWER:
absolutely refractory
absolute refractory
32. The ____________________ period is a period during which the membrane may be stimulated to excitation again, but
only with greater than typical stimulation.
ANSWER:
relatively refractory
relative refractory
33. The ____________________ of the myelinated axon support saltatory conduction.
ANSWER:
nodes of Ranvier
34. The nodes of Ranvier of the myelinated axon support ____________________ conduction.
ANSWER:
saltatory
35. ____________________ is a substance that is released from the terminal (end) button of an axon, and causes either
excitation or inhibition of another neuron or excitation of a muscle fiber.
ANSWER:
Neurotransmitter
36. Neurotransmitter substance is released into the ____________________.
ANSWER:
synaptic cleft
37. The point of communication between nerve and muscle is the ____________________.
ANSWER:
neuromuscular junction
38. A ____________________ unit consists of a motor neuron, its axon, and the muscle fibers it innervates.
ANSWER:
motor
39. A motor unit consists of a motor neuron, its axon, and the ____________________ it innervates.
ANSWER:
muscle fiber
40. Acetylcholine is a ____________________.
ANSWER:
neurotransmitter
41. ____________________-twitch muscle fibers are involved in maintenance of posture.
ANSWER:
Slow
42. ____________________-twitch muscle fibers are involved in fine and rapid motor function.
ANSWER:
Fast
43. ____________________ fibers are muscle fibers of the muscle spindle.
ANSWER:
Intrafusal
44. ____________________ sensors transduce information about muscle length.
ANSWER:
Muscle spindle
45. _________________________ transduce information concerning tension placed on tendons.
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ANSWER:
Golgi tendon organs
46. Theories of ____________________ state that attempts to localize function are generally fruitless and that the brain
functions as a whole.
ANSWER:
equipotentiality
47. The primary reception area for vision is within the ____________________ fissure of the occipital lobe.
ANSWER:
calcarine
48. The primary reception area for ____________________ is within the calcarine fissure.
ANSWER:
vision
49. Brodmann area number ____________________ is the primary reception area for vision.
ANSWER:
17
50. The secondary processing area for vision is Brodmann area number ____________________.
ANSWER:
18
51. The primary reception area for somatic sense is the ____________________ gyrus.
ANSWER:
postcentral
52. The primary reception area for auditory information is Brodmann number ____________________.
ANSWER:
41
53. The posterior portion of Brodmann area 22 is termed ____________________ area.
ANSWER:
Wernicke’s
54. Brodmann areas 4 and part of 6 make up the ____________________ gyrus of the cerebrum.
ANSWER:
precentral
55. Brodmann area number ____________________ is the premotor region.
ANSWER:
6
56. The ____________________ area is found in the medial portion of Brodmann area 6, and is involved in speech
initiation.
ANSWER:
supplementary motor
57. ____________________ is a speech disorder arising from paralysis, muscular weakness, and discoordination of
speech musculature.
ANSWER:
Dysarthria
58. ____________________ dysarthria arises from damage to lower motor neurons or their cell bodies.
ANSWER:
Flaccid
59. ____________________ refers to low muscle tone.
ANSWER:
Hypotonia
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60. ____________________ dysarthria arises from bilateral damage to upper motor neurons of the pyramidal (direct) and
extrapyramidal (indirect) motor pathways.
ANSWER:
Spastic
61. ____________________ refers to increased muscle tone.
ANSWER:
Hypertonia
62. ____________________ refers to increased reflexive response.
ANSWER:
Hyperreflexia
63. ____________________ dysarthria arises from damage to the cerebellum or to the brainstem vestibular nuclei, or
both.
ANSWER:
Ataxic
64. ____________________ dysarthria is characterized by extraneous, involuntary movement of speech musculature, in
addition to movement produced voluntarily.
ANSWER:
Hyperkinetic
65. Tics, tremors, athetosis, and dystonia are all termed ____________________.
ANSWER:
hyperkinesias
66. ____________________ dysarthria is characterized by paucity of movement, such as that seen in Parkinson's disease.
ANSWER:
Hypokinetic
67. The ____________________ association area includes portions of the temporal, parietal, and occipital lobes
(Brodmann areas 39, 40, and portions of 19, 21, 22, and 37), and receives input from auditory, visual, and somatosensory
regions, permitting the integration of this information into language function.
ANSWER:
temporal-occipital-parietal
68. The ____________________ association area includes regions of the parahippocampal gyrus and temporal pole
(temporal lobe), cingulate gyri (parietal and frontal lobes), and orbital surfaces (inferior frontal lobe).
ANSWER:
limbic
69. The ____________________ association area (anterior to Brodmann area 6) is involved with integration of
information in preparation for the motor act, as well as higher-level cognitive processes.
ANSWER:
prefrontal
70. Language function in the majority of individuals is located in the ____________________ hemisphere of the brain.
ANSWER:
left
71. Auditory information presented to the right ear is processed predominantly by the ____________________
hemisphere.
ANSWER:
left
72. The ____________________ hemisphere appears to be specialized for the process of analysis, favoring discrete,
sequential, rapidly changing information.
ANSWER:
left
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73. The ____________________ hemisphere appears to be specialized for spatial and holistic elements, such as face
recognition, speech intonation, melody, and perception of form.
ANSWER:
right
74. Receptive language function occurs predominantly in ____________________ area of the dominant cerebral
hemisphere.
ANSWER:
Wernicke’s
75. Damage to the inferior temporal lobe often results in ____________________ deficit.
ANSWER:
memory
76. ____________________ aphasia is also referred to as fluent aphasia.
ANSWER:
Wernicke’s
77. Nonfluent aphasia, also known as ____________________ aphasia, arises from frontal lobe lesions.
ANSWER:
Broca’s
78. Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas communicate by means of the ____________________ fasciculus.
ANSWER:
arcuate
79. ____________________ refers to difficulty naming objects.
ANSWER:
Anomia
80. ____________________ refers to generation of novel words.
ANSWER:
Neologism
81. Bilateral damage to the parahippocampal lobe will result in profound ____________________ deficit.
ANSWER:
memory
long-term memory
82. The ____________________ of the frontal lobe is the region involved in initiation of the motor act.
ANSWER:
motor strip
precentral gyrus
83. Input to the motor strip arises from the ____________________ strip.
ANSWER:
premotor
84. What is myasthenia gravis, what causes this disorder, and what are the major symptoms?
ANSWER:
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disease. Neurologists propose that the client has an
autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, which is the point of contact
between a muscle fiber and the nerve innervating it. Thus the client has an immune
response to the neurotransmitter receptor of the neuromuscular junction. In addition, the
client builds antibodies that block receptors. Blocked receptors cannot respond to
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CHAPTER 12 - NEUROPHYSIOLOGY
amount of alcohol as intoxicated. People in all cultures drink alcohol, and thus the negative
effects of alcohol on the brain are widespread throughout the world. Acute alcohol
intoxication disables the hippocampus, which can destroy the ability of an individual to
learn or memorize data, or learn from experience. Thus it is futile to try to discuss issues or
ideas with an intoxicated individual.
Chronic alcohol use is even more dangerous than acute alcohol intoxication. Individuals
who chronically abuse alcohol may experience the following adverse consequences:
∙
The frontal lobes may deteriorate, which impairs the person's ability
to process information and thus make informed decisions.
∙
Liver damage (sclerosis of the liver) may destroy the body's ability
to metabolize vitamin B (thiamine).
∙
Vitamin B deficiency diminishes the function of neurons and glial
cells; damages the body's ability to process iron; and reduces the
oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
∙
Chronic anemia can cause permanent brain damage.
∙
Alzheimer's disease may develop in people who are genetically
predisposed to this condition at twice the rate of the population.
∙
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is the ultimate result of a thiamine
deficiency. This syndrome causes permanent dementia
characterized by confusion, confabulation, memory loss, an inability
to develop new memories, and various motor signs such as
nystagmus and ataxia.
89. What is the effect of aphasia on a person, and what important intervention can help this client eventually
lead a normal life?
ANSWER:
Aphasia is an acquired language disorder characterized by the person's inability to process
linguistic information, and to communicate through speech and writing. This problem
immediately arises due to a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Aphasia results in many
adverse changes in the afflicted person's life, including the ability to interact with his or her
environment.
When a person suffers a left-hemisphere stroke of the frontal lobe, he or she faces serious
communication problems. When the lesion is in the posterior regions of the brain, speech
will require less effort, but may be "empty" of content, In addition, clients may have
problems with comprehension, because they fail to realize that their speech is not
communicating what they mean.
When a person first develops aphasia, it is extremely important to involve the client's
spouse or close friend early in the treatment program. This significant other can help
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CHAPTER 12 - NEUROPHYSIOLOGY
ANSWER:
d
100. Type of muscle fiber that attaches to muscle spindles
ANSWER:
c
101. Muscle fiber that is triggered to contract, to normalize the length of the muscle, when a muscle is passively stretched
ANSWER:
g
102. Structure that provides feedback concerning muscle length
ANSWER:
b
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124. Cognitive deficit
ANSWER:
d
125. Deficit of intonation
ANSWER:
b
126. Left visual neglect
ANSWER:
b
127. Loss of face recognition
ANSWER:
b
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CHAPTER 12 - NEUROPHYSIOLOGY
ANSWER:
e
134. The speaker has initiated a motor plan to begin the act of speech, but the motor plan is compared with the actual
position of the articulators and speech structures to determine whether changes must be made for coordinated speech
output.
ANSWER:
j
135. The features of an acoustical signal that has been received auditorily are combined, analyzed, and recognized as
meaningful speech. The syntax for the utterance is parsed and word meaning is combined to that signal.
ANSWER:
c
136. The speaker takes the auditory information she has received and analyzed as input speech and examines it for
emotional overlay (to determine if the person speaking to her is angry or happy).
ANSWER:
i
137. The speaker organizes his idea into linguistic and phonological units in preparation for speech.
ANSWER:
g
138. The speaker takes the phonological and phonetic code that has been created for the production of speech and
activates the instruction to contract the muscles associated with speech.
ANSWER:
f
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143. The molecular “fuel” for active transport
ANSWER:
f
144. Structure that produces adenosine triphosphate
ANSWER:
h
145. A change in electrical potential that occurs when the cell membrane is stimulated adequately to permit ion exchange
between intra- and extracellular spaces
ANSWER:
c
146. Structure involved in active cellular transport
ANSWER:
i
147. The period following depolarization of a neuron during which a neuron can fire, but requires a higher level of
stimulation than required for the initial depolarization to do so
ANSWER:
k
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Class:
Date:
153. IPSP
ANSWER:
h
154. Caused by excitation
ANSWER:
i
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Class:
Date:
CHAPTER 12 - NEUROPHYSIOLOGY
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