978-0134145013 Chapter 8

Chapter 8

Multiple Choice Questions

8.1 Under IDEIA, an evaluation means procedures used to determine whether a child has a disability

and the nature and extent of the special education and related services that the child needs

a. True

b. False

8.2 Before any evaluations, testing, and placement can be done, there must be parental consent

a. True

b. False

8.3 How many criteria are there for parental consent?

a. None

b. One

c. Two

d. Three

8.4 When used with reference to a person of limited English-speaking ability, native language means

the language normally used by the individual, or in the case of a child, the language normally used by

whom?

a. The parents of the child

b. The child

c. Grandparents of the child

d. Teachers of the child

8.5 Mode of communication refers to communication normally used by individuals who are deaf, blind

or have no written language, and may include Braille, sign language, oral communication or some form

of technologically enhanced communication

a. True

b. False

8.6 When can consent for an initial evaluation of a child with a disability be revoked?

a. Within 5 days of parental signature

b. Within 5 days of parental signature

c. Never

d. Consent is voluntary and may be revoked at any time

8.7 The initial evaluation for a suspected disability must be conducted within how many days of

receiving parental consent?

a. 15

b. 30

c. 60

d. 90

8.8 All testing materials and procedures used for the purposes of evaluation and placement of children

with disabilities must be selected and administered so as not to be racially or culturally discriminatory

a. True

b. False

8.9 _______ refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure.

a. Validity

b. Reliability

c. Both validity and reliability

d. None of the above

8.10 _________ is a method for assessing the validity of an instrument by comparing its scores with

another criteria known to already be a measure of the same trait or skill.

a. Criterion related validity

b. Construct validity

c. Content validity

d. Reliability

8.11 Criterion related validity is usually expressed as a _______ between the test in question and the

criterion measure.

a. Mean

b. Standard deviation

c. Correlation

d. Median

8.12 Which of the following is the strongest validity coefficient?

a. +.32

b. +.46

c. +.67

d. +.91

8.13 Which of the following is the weakest validity coefficient

a. +.32

b. +.46

c. +.67

d. +.91

8.14 _______ is/are an example(s) of a type of criterion related validity:

a. Concurrent validity

b. Predictive validity.

c. Concurrent and predictive validity

d. Neither concurrent nor predictive validity

8.15 _________ is the extent to which a procedure correlates with the current behavior of subjects.

a. Concurrent validity

b. Construct validity

c. Content validity

d. Predictive validity

8.16 ________ refers to how precisely a person’s present performance (for example, a test score)

estimates that person’s performance on the criterion measure at approximately the same time.

a. Concurrent validity

b. Construct validity

c. Content validity

d. Predictive validity

8.17 ________ is the extent to which a procedure allows accurate predictions about a subject’s future

behavior.

a. Concurrent validity

b. Construct validity

c. Content validity

d. Predictive validity

8.18 ________ is a measure of a specific instrument’s ability to predict future performance on some other

measure or criterion at a later date.

a. Concurrent validity

b. Construct validity

c. Content validity

d. Predictive validity

8.19 Many colleges believe that the SAT has ________ with respect to how well a student will do in

college.

a. Concurrent validity

b. Construct validity

c. Content validity

d. Predictive validity

8.20 _________ refers to whether the individual items of a test represent what you actually want to assess.

a. Concurrent validity

b. Construct validity

c. Content validity

d. Predictive validity

8.21 When we evaluate _______, we are asking “ Does the content of our measure fairly and accurately

reflect the content desired to be measured?”

a. Concurrent validity

b. Construct validity

c. Content validity

d. Predictive validity

8.22 ________ describes how well a test’s items reflect the area of learning to be assessed.

a. Concurrent validity

b. Construct validity

c. Content validity

d. Predictive validity

8.23 ________ is the extent to which a test measures a theoretical construct or attribute.

a. Concurrent validity

b. Construct validity

c. Content validity

d. Predictive validity

8.24 An example of a constructs is:

a. Reasoning ability

b. Self-concept

c. Creativity

d. All of the above are examples of constructs

8.25 A test that has good _______ validity has high positive correlations with other tests measuring the

same construct.

a. Convergent

b. Discriminant

c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

8.26 A test that has good ________ validity has low correlations with tests that measure different

constructs.

a. Convergent

b. Discriminant

c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

8.27 Which of the following are test related factors which could affect the validity of a test?

a. Anxiety

b. Motivation

c. Understanding test instructions

d. Deficiencies in educational opportunities

e. All of the above

8.28 Which of the following are intervening events which could affect the validity of a test?

a. Death of a parent

b. Parental divorce

c. Breakup with a boyfriend

d. Move to a new school district

e. All of the above

8.29 If the reliability of a test is ______ then the validity will also be _____.

a. Low/low

b. Low/high

c. High/low

d. High/high

8.30 ________ refers to the consistency of measurements.

a. Criterion related validity

b. Construct validity

c. Content validity

d. Reliability

8.31 If a test lacks reliability, it is not:

a. Stable

b. Reproducible

c. Predictable

d. Dependable

e. All of the above

8.32 Reliability coefficients can range in value from:

a. -1.00 to +1.00

b. 0.00 to 1.00

c. -1.00 to 0.00

d. -1.00 to -2.00

8.33 The larger the reliability coefficient, the more repeatable or reliable the test scores

a. True

b. False

8.34 The symbol used to denote a reliability coefficient is the letter _____ with two identical subscripts.

a. p

b. r

c. f

d. y

8.35 A reliability coefficient value below ______may have limited applicability.

a. rxx = .99

b. rxx = .88

c. rxx = .75

d. rxx = .70

8.36 A reliability coefficient value of rxx = .75 is interpreted as:

a. Excellent

b. Good

c. Adequate

d. May have limited applicability

8.37 A reliability coefficient value of rxx = .96 is interpreted as:

a. Excellent

b. Good

c. Adequate

d. May have limited applicability

8.38 A reliability coefficient of rxx = .45 is interpreted as:

a. Excellent

b. Good

c. Adequate

d. May have limited applicability

8.39 ________ suggests that subjects tend to obtain the same score when tested at different times.

a. Test-retest reliability

b. Alternate forms reliability

c. Inter-rater reliability

d. Split-half reliability

8.40 If a test has high ________, a student who produces a low score now should also produce a low

score later, and a student scoring high now should also produce a high score later.

a. Test-retest reliability

b. Alternate forms reliability

c. Inter-rater reliability

d. Split-half reliability

8.41 _________ is evident when there is a high positive correlation between the scores obtained from two

testings.

a. Test-retest reliability

b. Alternate forms reliability

c. Inter-rater reliability

d. Split-half reliability

8.42 ________ indicates that subjects’ scores on some trials consistently math their scores on other trials.

a. Test-retest reliability

b. Alternate forms reliability

c. Inter-rater reliability

d. Split-half reliability

8.43 ________ is often done by computing each subject’s total odd score and correlate it with the even

scores.

a. Test-retest reliability

b. Alternate forms reliability

c. Inter-rater reliability

d. Split-half reliability

8.44 ________ is a procedure for determining accuracy that involves correlating two halves of the same

test.

a. Test-retest reliability

b. Alternate forms reliability

c. Inter-rater reliability

d. Split-half reliability

8.45 _________ involves having two raters independently observe and record specified behaviors during

the same time period.

a. Test-retest reliability

b. Alternate forms reliability

c. Inter-rater reliability

d. Split-half reliability

8.46 In order to assess interrater reliability, you work with someone to examine how many times a child

gets up from his chair over the course of the day. You agree with your partner 80 times but had different

recordings on 20 separate occasions. What is the interrater reliability?

a. 80%

b. 65%

c. 75%

d. 50%

8.47 ________ is also known as equivalent forms reliability or parallel form reliability.

a. Test-retest reliability

b. Alternate forms reliability

c. Inter-rater reliability

d. Split-half reliability

e. Alternate forms reliability

8.48 Determining _________ requires a test developer to create two forms of the same test, giving both

forms to students, and comparing the scores from the two forms.

a. Test-retest reliability

b. Alternate forms reliability

c. Inter-rater reliability

d. Split-half reliability

e. Alternate forms reliability

8.49 When you administer a test you get a score. This score is known as the

a. Obtained score

b. True score

c. Error score

8.50 In theory, the obtained score consists of ______:

a. True score

b. Error score

c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

8.51 The statistical method to determine the amount of error in a given instrument is the :

a. SPD

b. SDR

c. SEM

d. SLR

8.52 Which of the following are NOT factors which can affect reliability?

a. Test Length

b. Test-retest interval

c. Variability of scores

d. Guessing

e. All of the above can affect reliability

8.53 No single procedure can be used as the sole criterion for determining an appropriate educational

program for a child.

a. True

b. False

8.54 In general, which of the following are general objectives of a comprehensive assessment?

a. Identify the language needed for instruction and special education services

b. Identify a student’s strengths and weaknesses in each of these areas in order to formulate realistic

expectations for achievement;

c. Identify a student’s strengths and weaknesses in each of these areas in order to facilitate enhanced

student outcomes through effective teaching;

d. All of the above

8.55 When doing an evaluation of a child for a suspected disability, all tests must be given in the child’s

native language and all reports must be written in the parent’s native language

a. True

b. False

ANSWER KEY