Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 12e (Robbins/Judge)
Chapter 14 Conflict and Negotiation
1) ________ is defined as a process that begins when one party perceives another party has or is
about to negatively affect something the first party cares about.
A) Problem solving
B) Assessment
C) Conflict
D) Negotiation
E) Collective bargaining
2) According to the traditional view of conflict, conflict is ________.
A) harmful
B) natural
C) necessary
D) healthy
E) rational
3) According to the interactionist’s perspective, a group that functions without conflict is
________.
A) dysfunctional
B) static and apathetic
C) responsive to the need for change and innovation
D) the most productive
E) viable, self-critical, and creative
4) According to the interactionist view, ________ conflicts support the goals of the group and
improve its performance.
A) formal
B) informal
C) functional
D) dysfunctional
E) reactive
5) With reference to the interactionist view of conflict, conflict that relates to the content and
goals of work is called ________ conflict.
A) job
B) task
C) relationship
D) process
E) communication
6) Which of the following statements is true regarding task conflicts?
A) Task conflicts relate to how the work gets done.
B) Task conflicts are almost always dysfunctional.
C) Groups performing routine tasks won’t benefit from task conflict.
D) Task conflict focuses on interpersonal relationships.
E) Task conflicts hinder creativity and innovation.
7) Which of the following statements is true regarding the managed conflict perspective?
A) It argues that all conflicts are bad and should be eliminated.
B) It proposes that some conflict is absolutely necessary for a group to perform effectively.
C) It classifies conflicts into functional and dysfunctional conflicts.
D) It is based on the view that conflicts reduce the long-term viability of the group.
E) It argues that conflicts improve creativity of the group.
8) The ________ view of conflict focuses on productive resolution of conflicts.
A) interactionist
B) transactional
C) managed
D) rational
E) traditional
9) Which of the following is the first stage of the conflict process?
A) cognition
B) personalization
C) incompatibility
D) intention
E) habituation
10) Conditions that can create conflicts can be classified into three categories. Which of the
following is one of these three categories that includes variables such as jurisdictional clarity,
member–goal compatibility, and leadership styles?
A) communication
B) structure
C) personal variables
D) group interactions
E) process variables
11) Which of the following statements is true regarding conflict?
A) The smaller the group, the greater the likelihood of conflict.
B) The less specialized the activities of the group, the greater the likelihood of conflict.
C) People low in the personality traits of disagreeableness, neuroticism, or self-monitoring are
more likely to engage in a conflict.
D) Diversity of goals among groups is a major source of conflict.
E) As the ambiguity about where responsibility for actions lies decreases, the potential for
conflict increases.
12) Stage II of the conflict process deals with the conflict being ________.
A) perceived and felt
B) apparent and experienced
C) expressed and perceived
D) cooperative and assertive
E) accommodated and compromised
13) The ________ stage of the conflict process is important because it’s where conflict issues
tend to be defined.
A) potential opposition
B) cognition and personalization
C) intuitions
D) behavior
E) reaction and transference
14) ________ is the third stage in the conflict process and it intervenes between people’s
perceptions and their overt behavior.
A) Potential for opposition
B) Intention
C) Cognition
D) Attribution
E) Behavioral manifestation
15) When one person seeks to satisfy his or her own interests regardless of the impact on the
other parties to the conflict, that person is ________.
A) competing
B) avoiding
C) accommodating
D) compromising
E) collaborating
16) The conflict-handling techniques are characterized by two dimensions, cooperativeness and
assertiveness. Cooperativeness indicates the degree to which ________.
A) one party attempts to satisfy his or her own concerns
B) one party attempts to suppress the conflict
C) the parties attempt to find a win-win solution
D) one party attempts to satisfy the other party’s concerns
E) the parties are willing to involve third-party conflict resolution techniques
17) Based on the dimensions of cooperativeness and assertiveness, the conflict-handling
intentions are classified into five categories. Which of the following is not one of these five
conflict-handling intentions?
A) collaborating
B) competing
C) accommodating
D) avoiding
E) resisting
18) The conflict-handling intention of collaborating is ________.
A) assertive and uncooperative
B) assertive and cooperative
C) unassertive and uncooperative
D) unassertive and cooperative
E) affective and reflective
19) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions is unassertive and uncooperative?
A) competing
B) collaborating
C) avoiding
D) compromising
E) accommodating
20) The conflict-handling intention of accommodating is ________.
A) assertive and uncooperative
B) assertive and cooperative
C) unassertive and uncooperative
D) unassertive and cooperative
E) reflective and assertive
21) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions involves attempting to find a win-win
solution?
A) avoiding
B) collaborating
C) accommodating
D) compromising
E) competing
22) Angelina feels that her cubicle neighbor talks loudly on the phone, but in other ways she is a
great neighbor. Angelina gets annoyed every time her neighbor’s phone rings, but she has
decided it’s simply not worth the trouble to talk to her neighbor. Angelina’s conflict-handling
intention is called ________.
A) competing
B) avoiding
C) accommodating
D) compromising
E) collaborating
23) Irma does not agree with the standard operating procedures adapted for the new project.
However, she discusses the items with the team and comes to know that she was in the minority.
She has, therefore, decided to accept the new procedures to maintain smooth operations within
the team. This type of intention is called ________.
A) sacrificing
B) accommodating
C) collaborating
D) compromising
E) competing
24) The conflict-handling techniques are characterized by two dimensions, cooperativeness and
assertiveness. Assertiveness indicates the degree to which ________.
A) one party attempts to satisfy his or her own concerns
B) one party attempts to suppress the conflict
C) the parties attempt to find a win-win solution
D) one party attempts to satisfy the other party’s concerns
E) the parties are willing to involve third-party conflict resolution techniques
25) A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent’s interests
above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this intention as
________.
A) collaborating
B) avoiding
C) compromising
D) competing
E) accommodating
26) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions involves accepting a solution that
provides incomplete satisfaction of both parties’ concerns?
A) collaborating
B) compromising
C) avoiding
D) competing
E) accommodating
27) What is the overall goal of conflict management?
A) achieving the desired conflict level
B) resolving conflict
C) stimulating conflict
D) identifying conflict
E) assessing the source of conflict
28) In which stage of the conflict process does conflict become visible?
A) outcomes
B) intentions
C) incompatibility
D) behavior
E) personalization
29) ________ is an antidote for groupthink.
A) Politics
B) Distributive bargaining
C) Conflict
D) Integrative bargaining
E) Negotiation
30) Which of the following terms best describes the process that occurs when two or more
parties decide how to allocate scarce resources?
A) mediation
B) conflict management
C) negotiation
D) unionization
E) arbitration
31) The terms negotiation and ________ are used interchangeably.
A) mediation
B) bargaining
C) collaboration
D) accommodating
E) arbitration
32) The two general approaches to bargaining are known as ________ bargaining.
A) emotional and rational
B) affective and reflective
C) distributive and integrative
D) formal and informal
E) reflexive and restrictive
33) ________ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a “fixed pie.”
A) Distributive
B) Integrative
C) Reflective
D) Affective
E) Conjunctive
34) Emma is the labor union negotiator. Today, she is meeting with management to discuss the
new five-year contract, including wages and benefits. This example of labor-management
negotiations over wages exemplifies ________.
A) integrative bargaining
B) arbitration
C) distributive bargaining
D) mediation
E) conciliation
35) In the case of distributive bargaining, the ________ point indicates what a person would like
to achieve out of a negotiation.
A) resistance
B) clarification
C) target
D) closure
E) focus
36) In case of distributive bargaining, the ________ point marks the lowest outcome that is
acceptable—the point below which the party would break off negotiations rather than accept a
less favorable settlement.
A) resistance
B) tolerance
C) target
D) focal
E) clarification
37) Which of the following statements is true regarding distributive bargaining?
A) It operates under zero-sum conditions.
B) It focuses on long-term relationships.
C) It involves high information sharing.
D) It attempts to create a win-win solution.
E) In terms of intraorganizational behavior, all things being equal, distributive bargaining is
preferable to integrative bargaining.
38) During a negotiation, making an initial offer leads to the ________ bias.
A) self-serving
B) framing
C) attributional
D) anchoring
E) cognitive
39) All things being equal, ________ bargaining is preferable to distributive bargaining because
the former builds long-term relationships.
A) accommodative
B) transformational
C) integrative
D) collaborative
E) distributive
40) Which of the following statements is true regarding integrative bargaining?
A) Integrative bargaining leaves one party a loser.
B) Integrative bargaining makes the first offer, and makes it an aggressive one.
C) Integrative bargaining focuses on long-term relationships.
D) Integrative bargaining operates under zero-sum conditions.
E) Integrative bargaining involves low information sharing.
41) Which of the following is not a step in the negotiation process?
A) definition of ground rules
B) clarification and justification
C) bargaining and problem solving
D) process evaluation
E) preparation and planning
42) Your ________ determines the lowest value acceptable to you for a negotiated agreement.
A) BATNA
B) margin of error
C) bid price
D) asking price
E) hidden value
43) During which phase of the negotiation process do the parties exchange their initial proposals
or demands?
A) opening and initiating
B) definition of ground rules
C) clarification and justification
D) bargaining and problem-solving
E) integration of preferences
44) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the
“preparation and planning” step?
A) justifying your original demands
B) determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement
C) determining where the negotiation will take place
D) designing procedures for implementing the agreement that has been worked out
E) exchange of the initial proposals or demands
45) Carisa is negotiating for the labor union. Today, she is presenting the evidence and papers
that demonstrate the average wages in the area, the cost of health care for the average worker,
and a pie graph demonstrating how these costs affect the new salary request. Which phase of the
negotiation process is Carisa currently in?
A) preparation and planning
B) definition of ground rules
C) clarification and justification
D) bargaining and problem solving
E) closure and implementation
46) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the
“closure and implementation” step?
A) determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement
B) justifying your original demands
C) formalizing the agreement that has been worked out
D) determining time constraints, if any, applicable to negotiation
E) exchange of the initial proposals or demands
47) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the
“definition of ground rules” step?
A) determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement
B) determining time constraints, if any, applicable to negotiation
C) justifying your original demands
D) formalizing the agreement that has been worked out
E) determining the history leading up to the negotiation
48) Which of the following is not an individual factor that influences the effectiveness of a
negotiator?
A) personality
B) mood
C) gender
D) age
E) culture
49) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effects of personality traits on
negotiation?
A) Negotiation outcomes are not related to personality traits.
B) Extraverts tend to be very successful in distributive bargaining.
C) People who are highly interested in having positive relationships with other people are great
negotiators.
D) Individuals who score high on agreeableness dimension tend to be very successful in
distributive bargaining.
E) Disagreeable introverts are the best distributive bargainers.
50) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of emotion and gender on
negotiation?
A) Positive moods and emotions negatively affect integrative agreements.
B) Men and women negotiate differently.
C) Women have been found to negotiate better outcomes than men.
D) During negotiation, displaying anger leads to better outcomes for those who are in a less
powerful position.
E) Research shows that women are penalized when they initiate negotiations.