1. In 1256, a test was formulated by the English Judge Henry de Bracton to refer to insane
people who should not be held morally accountable for their actions. This was known as the
A. Durham test
B. Wild Beast test
C. Penal Code test
D. Brute Man test
2. The first time results of psychological research were cited in a Supreme Court decision was in
A. People v. Schmidt
B. Plessy v. Ferguson
C. People v. Taylor
D. Brown vs. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas
3. The defense that a defendant’s mental illness caused him to dramatically increase his consumption
of junk food to deal with his problems, and that this made him feel more depressed, contributing
to the likelihood of violent actions, was called the
A. Twinkie Defense
B. Harvey Milk defense
C. San Francisco defense
D. Syndrome defense
4. Dennis Rader was also known as the
A. Virginia Tech killer
B. BTK killer
C. Clown killer
D. Texas Tower killer
5. The worst school-shooting in U.S. history was committed by
A. Lee Boyd Malvo
B. Seung-Hui Cho
C. Ted Kaczynski
D. Albert Bandura
6. “Applying natural, physical and social sciences to the resolution of social and legal issues” is an
appropriate definition of
A. forensic science
B. forensic psychology
C. forensic odontology
D. applied forensic psychology
7. “Forensic toxicology” deals with the
A. causes of failure of devices and structures
B. examination of dental remains for identification of victims
C. analyses of tissues and fluids from deceased persons
D. identification of skeletal remains of victims
8. From a legal standpoint, “soft” science differs from “hard” science in that the former
A. requires less years of graduate study
B. deals with tissue remains rather than skeletal remains
C. is not really science at all
D. is much closer to the common understanding of the ordinary juror
9. Examples of “hard” science would include all of the following except
A. social psychology
B. chemistry
C. biology
D. physics
10. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
A. law is normative, while science is descriptive
B. law is value-laden, while science is value-free
C. legal reasoning is largely deductive, while scientific method is primarily inductive
D. all the above
11. In 1896 Albert Von Schrenck-Notzing argued that pre-trial publicity resulted in witnesses not
being able to distinguish between what they actually saw and what they had read in the press. He
called this kind of perceptual error
A. suggestability
B. retroactive memory falsification
C. hypnotic falsification
D. proactive memory falsification
12. The “father of forensic psychology” is regarded as
A. William Marston
B. Kenneth Bancroft Clark
C. Bruno Bettelheim
D. Hugo Münsterberg
13. One of the first psychologists to describe the psychological factors that can affect a trial’s
outcome was
A. Hugo Münsterberg
B. Bruno Bettelheim
C. Margaret Hagen
D. Sigmund Freud
14. Prior to 1954, the constitutional issue of segregation was based upon the 1896 Supreme
Court’s decision in
A. Plessy v. Ferguson
B. Brown v. Mississippi
C. Dusky v. United States
D. Sell v. United States
15. The “doll test” was used to
A. study the power of suggestion in cross examination
B. study the psychological effects of segregation on black children
C. study the effectiveness of the polygraph technique
D. study the effects of pre-trial publicity on memory
16. This theorist advocated for the use of psychoanalysis for ascertaining the truth in courts of
law.
A. Wilhelm Wundt
B. James McKeen Cattell
C. Sigmund Freud
D. Alfred Adler
17. The first American professor of “legal psychology” was
A. William Marston
B. Mamie Phipps Clark
C. Bruno Bettelheim
D. Alfred Binet
18. “Amicus curiae” is best translated to mean
A. expert witness
B. “hard” science
C. friend of the court
D. healing actions
19. The term “refrigerator moms” popularized in the 1960s, was coined by
A. Margaret Hagen
B. Jim Crow
C. Bruno Bettelheim
D. William Marston
20. The term “refrigerator moms” referred to producing children who were
A. autistic
B. schizophrenic
C. school-phobic
D. oppositional
21. One of the most scathing criticisms of the business of expert testimony was made by
A. Ted Kaczynski
B. Margaret Hagen
C. Harvey Milk
D. Benjamin Cardozo
22. “Jim Crow” laws referred to laws that
A. relied on junk science
B. were overturned by the Supreme Court
C. encouraged integration of the races
D. separated the races
23. “Whores of the Court: The Fraud of Psychiatric Testimony and the Rape of American Justice”
was written by
A. Margaret Hagen
B. Bruno Bettelheim
C. Sigmund Freud
D. Hugo Münsterberg
24. A victim is raped but fails to report the rape for several hours. She also fails to name her attacker.
Such behavior is most consistent with
A. posttraumatic stress disorder
B. rape trauma syndrome
C. retroactive memory falsification
D. battered partner syndrome
25. The research conducted by Kenneth Bancroft Clark and Mamie Phipps Clark was
instrumental in the case of
A. Plessy v.Ferguson
B. Brown v. Board of Education
C. People v. Taylor
D. Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals
1. “The application of scientific and professional aspects of psychology to questions and issues
relating to the law and the legal system” is a definition of
A. forensic science
B. clinical forensic science
C. forensic psychology
D. experimental forensic psychology
2. Specialty guidelines for forensic psychology were first introduced in 1991 by
A. the American Psychological Association
B. the American Psychiatric Association
C. the Society of Police and Criminal Psychology
D. the American Psychology-Law Society
3. Forensic psychology involves an overlapping relationship between
A. forensic science, experimental psychology, and the judiciary
B. clinical practice, forensic science, and the legal system
C. clinical psychology, experimental psychology, and counseling psychology
D. clinical practice, experimental research, and the law
4. The clinical aspects of forensic psychology include all of the following except
A. competency to stand trial
B. sanity
C. fitness-for-duty evaluations
D. jury decision-making processes
5. The research aspects of forensic psychology include all of the following except
A. pre-employment psychological screening
B. the effects of pretrial publicity on juries
C. the effects of expert testimony on juries
D. the effects of suspect presentation methods on witness’ recall
6. The primary organization representing psychology is the
A. American Psychology-Law Society
B. American Psychological Association
C. American Psychological Society
D. American Psychological Foundation
7. The legal aspects of forensic psychology include all of the following except
A. alternate dispute resolution
B. psychological autopsies
C. psychological damages in civil cases
D. trial procedure
8. “Psychologists in public service” are represented by which division of the American
Psychological Association?
A. 18
B. 12
C. 14
D. 8
9. How many graduate training programs in the United States offer a “pure” degree in
forensic psychology?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 8
10. The “doctor of psychology” degree is abbreviated as
A. Dr.Psy.
B. Psych.D
C. Ph.D.
D. Psy.D.
11. Which of the following is a law degree?
A. Ph.D.
B. JD
C. LLB
D. b & c
12. The oldest and most respected body granting board certification in psychology is
A. The American Board of Psychiatry
B. The American Board of Professional Psychology
C. The American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology
D. The American Psychological Society
13. Which of the following is an example of “real” evidence?
A. the murder weapon used in a crime
B. an autopsy report
C. the testimony of a police detective
D. all the above
14. Which of the following is an example of “demonstrative” evidence?
A. a contract
B. fingerprints
C. an anatomical model
D. all the above
15. Which of the following is an example of “documentary” evidence?
A. a telephone transcript
B. copies of public records
C. newspapers
D. all the above
16. Which of the following “testimonial” evidence?
A. an eyewitness
B. a telephone intercept
C. a diagram
D. a map
17. Which of the following statements would not be allowed from a lay witness?
A. “He was going very, very fast”
B. “He was comatose”
C. “He seemed nervous”
D. “He acted crazy”
18. Which of the following statements would be allowed from an expert witness?
A. “He was dead”
B. “His arm was broken”
C. “He was unconscious”
D. all the above
19. An expert witness has special knowledge or skill gained by
A. education
B. training
C. experience
D. any of the above
20. Evidence is admitted into testimony via rules of evidence established by the ___________
in which a court sits.
A. county
B. jurisdiction
C. city
D. federal district
21. This case held that expert scientific opinion was admissible only if the principles on which
the opinions were based had gained general acceptance in the relevant scientific community.
A. Frye v. United States
B. Miranda v. Arizona
C. Daubert v. Merrell Dow
D. Jaffe v. Redmond
22. This case held that expert testimony can be admitted into evidence if, in the judge’s opinion,
the testimony would be relevant in assisting a jury in better understanding the case.
A. Frye v. United States
B. Miranda v. Arizona
C. Daubert v. Merrell Dow
D. Jaffe v. Redmond
23. The Federal Rules of Evidence is also known as
A. the Frye test
B. the expert witness test
C. the scientific community test
D. 28 U.S.C.A. §702
24. A new scientific technique which has not yet been tested by the relevant scientific community,
would be more likely to be accepted into evidence under which evidentiary rule?
A. Frye
B. Daubert
C. Frye-Daubert
D. Miranda
25. Where a testifying psychologist serves as a treatment professional,
A. the patient-treatment provider privilege applies
B. the attorney-client privilege applies
C. no privilege applied
D. both a and b apply
26. A psychologist-patient privilege
A. exists in all fifty states and the District of Columbia
B. exists in 48 states
C. depends on the jurisdiction of the psychologist
D. depends on the jurisdiction of the patient
27. Information a lawyer obtains from a client in the course of representation concerning the
client’s mental health is not subject to discovery
A. unless the lawyer waives the privilege
B. unless the client waives the privilege
C. unless either lawyer or client waive the privilege
D. unless both lawyer and client waive the privilege
28. Psychologists who testify as experts are usually exempt from civil liability. Such an
exemption is to liability is referred to as
A. work-product opinion
B. confidentiality
C. psychotherapist-client privilege
D. immunity
29. Elements of the APA Ethics Code which are most relevant to forensic psychologists
require that psychologists
A. limit their services to the boundaries of their competence, education, and supervised
experience
B. base their opinions on information and techniques sufficient to substantiate their
findings
C. obtain informed consent prior to providing assessment or therapy
D. all the above
30. Elements of the APA Ethics Code which are most relevant to forensic psychologists
require that psychologists
A. consider individual ethic and cultural differences of individuals that might affect the
results of psychological testing and evaluations
B. clarify their role expectations and extent of confidentiality to their clients, especially
when court proceedings are involved
C. be unbiased and forthright when expressing their assessments and opinions, and not be
obligated to deliver favorable testimony due to contractual relationships with either side
of a case
D. all the above
31. A legal or moral responsibility or obligation, recognized by the law, requiring one to
conform to certain standards of conduct for the protection of others against unreasonable
ricks, is called a(n)
A. requirement
B. duty
C. expert opinion
D. oath
32. A “constructive breach” is where
A. one party to a contract fails to perform any promise which forms the whole or part of
a contract without legal excuse
B. a prisoner departs from legal custody using force
C. one party bound to perform a contract or obligation disables himself from performance
by some act, or declares, before the time comes, that he will not perform
D. none of the above
33. The seminal American case on “duty to warn” is
A. Jenkins v. United States
B. Underwood v. United States
C. Palsgraf v. Long Island R. R. Co.
D. State v. Boles
34. A person who seeks a ________________ that is, a ruling by a higher court that it hear
a case, is known as a(n) ________________.
A. writ of certiorari, petitioner
B. writ of certiorari, respondent
C. judgment, plaintiff
D. judgment, defendant
35. A mental health provider’s generalized duty to protect third parties, is best known as the
A. foreseeability duty
B. Palsgraf duty
C. third party duty
D. Tarasoff duty
36. In this 1983 case, the U.S. Supreme Court explicitly stated that a mental health professional
could address the future dangerousness of a capital murder defendant at the time of
sentencing.
A. Weitz v Lovelace Health
B. Barefoot v. Estelle
C. Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California
D. Naidu v. Laird
37. Assessments based on human judgment that considers clinical variables which are dynamic
and subject to change, are best referred to as
A. clinical judgments
B. predictive judgments
C. variable judgments
D. subjective judgments
38. Statistically-based assessments based on validated relationships between measurable
predictor and outcome variables and ultimately determined by fixed, or mechanical, and
explicit rules, are best referred to as
A. meta-analytical assessments
B. organized assessments
C. actuarial assessments
D. validated assessments
1. Behavior that has as its goal the infliction of harm upon another person who is in turn
motivated to avoid the harm, is called
A. violence
B. aggression
C. crime
D. hostility
2. _______________ aggression is impulsive or thoughtless and driven by anger.
A. affective
B. instrumental
C. sentimental
D. biological
3. Aggression that is a premeditated means of obtaining some goal other than just harming the
victim is called _______________ aggression.
A. affective
B. instrumental
C. sentimental
D. biological
4. Self-defense would be an example of _______________ aggression.
A. justifiable
B. criminal
C. involuntary
D. instrumental
5. The study of facial features for the classification of criminal behavior is referred to as
A. phrenology
B. constitutionalism
C. primitivism
D. physiognomy
6. The study of bumps on the head for the classification of criminal behavior is referred to as
A. phrenology
B. constitutionalism
C. primitivism
D. physiognomy
7. The study of body type and physique for the classification of criminal behavior is referred to
as
A. phrenology
B. physiognomy
C. somatotyping
D. none of the above
8. Men possessing the XYY chromosome configuration, which has been linked to violence,
have been called
A. hyper males
B. hostile males
C. super males
D. psychoactive males
9. There is evidence from animal research that the neurotransmitter serotonin plays a key role in
mediating
A. suicidal behavior
B. aggressive behavior
C. violent imagery
D. drug use
10. The limbic system includes the hypothalamus, the hippocampus, and the
A. amygdala
B. cortex
C. thalamus
D. cerebrum
11. Measures of brain functioning include all the following except a(n)
A. EEG
B. PET
C. TAC
D. both a and b
12. The zoological study of animal behavior is called
A. natural selection
B. zoology
C. ethology
D. morphology
13. Genetically-programmed behaviors are most commonly referred to as
A. adaptations
B. instincts
C. heredity
D. ontogenetic development
14. The “hydraulic model” of instinctive behavior is best associated with
A. Konrad Lorenz
B. Ernst Kretschmer
C. Booth & Osgood
D. William Sheldon
15. One of the earliest and most widely known theories of aggression described aggression as
being instigated by
A. modeling
B. blocked energy
C. defense mechanisms
D. frustration
16. The view that frustration emerges when environmental circumstances interfere with a
desired goal response, is called the
A. species-defense hypothesis
B. frustration-aggression hypothesis
C. cognitive-defense hypothesis
D. imitation hypothesis
17. It has been proposed that aggressive behavior may be controlled by learned ways of
responding that are stored in a person’s memory and used as guides for behavior and social
problem solving. These are called
A. cathartic behaviors
B. communal defense responses
C. revised frustration-aggression behaviors
D. cognitive scripts
18. The social learning theory of aggression is most associated with
A. John Dollard
B. Konrad Lorenz
C. Albert Bandura
D. Niko Tinbergen
19. According to the social learning model of aggression, aggressive behavior in children is
acquired through
A. inhibition
B. disappointment
C. imitation
D. autonomic stimulation
20. A long-standing and maladaptive pattern of perceiving and responding to other people and to
stressful circumstances, is best referred to as a(n)
A. personality disorder
B. neurosis
C. transference
D. irresponsibility dilemma
21. The “cluster” of personality representative of impulsive aggression in the DSM-IV is
A. “angry and hostile”
B. “dramatic and emotional”
C. “fearful and avoidant”
D. “likeable and pleasant”
22. Individuals with an inflated sense of self-worth without a strong set of beliefs that support
this sense of superiority are often referred to as
A. vindictive
B. impulsive
C. affective
D. narcissistic
23. A person who exhibits repeated criminal activity, lying, unreliability, irresponsibility,
manipulativeness, and a disregard for the rights of others and the standards of society, can be
referred to as a(n)
A. antisocial personality
B. narcissistic personality
C. borderline personality
D. all the above
24. According to Erich Fromm, this type of person shows the inability to respond to things
and people around oneself with real interest, shows a lack of appetite for life, a lack of any
deep interest in anything or anybody, and a deep sense of powerlessness and resignation.
A. the self-regulating character
B. the bored character
C. the narcissistic character
D. the paranoid character
25. Research shows that the mere presence of weapons in pictures or in the natural environment
increases aggressive behavior in both angered and non-angered adults. This is called the
A. trigger effect
B. dagger effect
C. weapons effect
D. destruction effect
26. According to the _______________, alcohol weakens brain mechanisms that normally
restrain impulsive behaviors, including inappropriate aggression.
A. social cues hypothesis
B. toxicology hypothesis
C. disinhibition hypothesis
D. neurochemical change hypothesis
27. Which of the following has been found to increase irritability and aggression?
A. cannabis
B. anabolic steroids
C. cocaine
D. all the above
28. “The killing of a human being caused by another” is the definition of
A. homicide
B. murder
C. manslaughter
D. felony murder
29. Law originating in England which is handed down from judge to judge and court to court is
referred to as
A. common law
B. statutory law
C. civil law
D. criminal law
30. The shooting of a dead person is not homicide because
A. there is no intent to kill
B. the person is not a “life in being”
C. it did not “hasten the inevitable”
D. there is no mens rea
31. Murder can be defined as
A. the failure to act where there is a duty to act, resulting in the death of a human being
B. the unlawful killing of a human being committed with malice
C. neither a or b
D. both a and b
32. The physical or external part of a crime is the
A. mens rea
B. malum in se
C. actus reus
D. malum prohibitum
33. The mental or internal component of a crime is the
A. mens rea
B. malum in se
C. actus reus
D. malum prohibitum
34. This doctrine used to establish intent, states that one who intentionally uses a deadly
weapon to kill another human being and thereby kills him/her, presumably intended
to kill him/her.
A. transferred intent doctrine
B. deadly weapon doctrine
C. express malice doctrine
D. malevolent action doctrine
35. John shot Mary with the intention of killing her, but he missed and killed Alice insteaD.
John is most likely guilty of
A. nothing
B. negligent homicide
C. manslaughter
D. murder
36. Brenda shoots Bob with the intention of stopping him from leaving but not to kill him.
He dies from his wounds. Brenda is most likely guilty of
A. nothing
B. negligent homicide
C. manslaughter
D. murder
37. Ken drives his sports car at 100 miles per hour through a school zone while children are
present and kills a chilD. Ken is most likely guilty of
A. reckless abandonment
B. negligent homicide
C. manslaughter
D. murder
38. William burns down Fred’s house not knowing that Fred was inside. Fred dies in the fire.
William is most likely guilty of
A. wanton murder
B. felony murder
C. transferred intent murder
D. none of the above
39. Ross sets fire to Kent’s house. On the trip back from putting out the fire, a firefighter
falls off the fire truck and is killeD. Ross is most likely guilty of
A. wanton murder
B. felony murder
C. transferred intent murder
D. none of the above
40. An act which is “wrong in itself,” and by its very nature illegal because it violates the
natural, moral or public principles of a civilized society is called
A. malum in se
B. malum prohibitum
C. mens in se
D. actus prohibitum
41. In those jurisdictions not adopting the “Redline view,” if a co-felon is shot and killed by the
police while trying to escape the scene of a crime, the remaining co-felon is likely guilty of
A. felony murder
B. misdemeanor murder
C. depraved heart murder
D. felonious escape
42. In most jurisdictions first-degree murder would include
A. murder committed with premeditation and deliberation
B. murder committed with atrocity or cruelty
C. committed by torture
D. any of the above
43. Which of the following, if present, would help to establish premeditation?
A. the defendant’s prior possession of the murder weapon
B. the defendant’s surreptitious approach toward the victim
C. prior threats by the defendant to do violence to the victim
D. any of the above
44. A killing with malice aforethought, but without premeditation and deliberation is best
defined as
A. manslaughter
B. second-degree murder
C. misdemeanor murder
D. depraved heart murder
45. An intentional homicide under extenuating circumstances that mitigates, but does not
justify or excuse the killing, is
A. second-degree murder
B. premeditated murder
C. involuntary manslaughter
D. voluntary manslaughter
46. An unintentional homicide, committed without malice, which is neither justified nor
excused, is
A. second-degree murder
B. premeditated murder
C. involuntary manslaughter
D. voluntary manslaughter
47. Self-defense, defense of others, defense of one’s dwelling, and killing done under public
authority are all examples of
A. excusable homicide
B. justifiable homicide
C. defensive homicide
D. assault
48. Which of the following are prerequisites for a person to use deadly force in self-defense?
A. a woman is threatened by a man wielding a knife
B. a man is threatened by another man who says that he will kill him next month
C. a man is threatened by a woman with a toy gun which looks real and he believes is real
D. both a and c
49. Which of the following is not a condition for an excusable homicide?
A. duress
B. jealousy
C. necessity
D. mistake of fact
50. A(n) _______________ is an attempt or threat to inflict harm upon a person, or an
intentional placing of another person in apprehension of being harmeD.
A. assault
B. threat
C. battery
D. non-physical battery
51. The unlawful application of force to the person of another or to an extension of the other,
is called
A. rape
B. hazing
C. physical inducement
B. battery
1. The trespassory taking and carrying away of the tangible personal property of another with
the intent of depriving the other person of the property permanently or for an unreasonable
period of time, is
A. conversion
B. larceny
C. embezzlement
D. tresspassing
2. A garage where they are repairing one’s car has legal _______________ of the vehicle until
the repair bill is paiD.
A. possession
B. title
C. custody
D. possessory mortgage
3. A person who buys a large screen TV for a ridiculously low price and is asked to pay cash,
is likely guilty of
A. custody violation
B. wrongful possession
C. larceny
D. receiving stolen property
4. While standing on a crowded street corner, a person’s expensive watch is taken off their
wrist without their even being aware of it. The crime committed is most likely
A. larceny
B. embezzlement
C. wrongful possession
D. none of the above
5. A man’s wallet is taken at gunpoint. Later, it is discovered that the gun was actually a toy.
The crime committed was most likely
A. shoplifting
B. hijacking
C. larceny
D. robbery
6. The defense that a defendant has been “induced” by law enforcement to commit a crime is
called
A. entrapment
B. fraudulent inducement
C. fraud
D. intimidation
7. Breaking and entering of the dwelling of another in the nighttime with the intent to commit a
felony therein, is
A. illegal entry
B. false pretences
C. home invasion
D. common law burglary
8. An intoxicated individual is looking for a warm place to rest and he breaks into a house. Upon
awakening he notices some expensive coins and takes them. He is most likely guilty of
A. breaking and entering and larceny
B. burglary
C. entering by false pretenses
D. nothing because the act was not committed at night
9. Under the common law, the malicious burning of the dwelling of another is
A. 2nd degree arson
B. 3rd degree arson
C. arson
D. dwelling scorching
10. Crimes such as bribery, subornation of perjury, and tampering with witnesses or evidence,
are known collectively as
A. common law misdemeanors
B. crimes against the administration of justice
C. obstruction of justice
D. both a and b
11. The willful taking of a false oath in a judicial proceeding in regard to material matter at issue
before the court is
A. contempt
B. obstruction of justice
C. perjury
D. subornation of perjury
12. Exciting and stirring up lawsuits between people is known as
A. barratry
B. bribery
C. affray
D. bigamy
13. Offenses such as disturbing the peace, disorderly conduct, fighting in public, vagrancy,
illegal loitering, and public intoxication, are known collectively as
A. counterfeiting
B. paraphilias
C. crimes against nature
D. crimes against the public order
14. At common law, the mutual combat of two or more persons in a public place is called a(n)
A. affray
B. contempt
C. bribery
D. criminal nuisance
15. “Precocious sex” is also known as
A. prostitution
B. operating a bawdy house
C. underage sex
D. deviant sex
16. In the past, “consensual crimes” were also known as
A. quality of life crimes
B. unlawful assembly crimes
C. guilt by association
D. victimless crimes
17. First Amendment restrictions on censorship are relaxed when it comes to
A. obscenity
B. prurient interests
C. pornographic magazines
D. child pornography
18. The English offense of “Imagining the death of our lord the King,” is likely a very early
example of the crime of
A. treason
B. espionage
C. mutiny
D. sedition
19. The only crime specifically defined in the Constitution is
A. mutiny
B. treason
C. subversion
D. sabotage
20. Communication intended to stir up treason or rebellion against the government is called
A. mutiny
B. syndicalism
C. subversion
D. sedition
21. Technological advances such as the widespread use of _______________in the 1950s, have
made it increasingly difficult to control the distribution of sensitive information.
A. Xerox copiers
B. television
C. small cameras
D. radio transmitters
22. People commit espionage for reasons such as
A. money
B. power
C. revenge
D. all the above
23. Of the personality disorders found in spies, the two most common are
A. borderline and narcissistic
B. avoidant and schizoid
C. antisocial and borderline
D. antisocial and narcissistic
24. One thing that almost all spies have in common is
A. an inability to accept responsibility for their own actions
B. an intense dislike for their government
C. a need for power and success
D. demanding spouses
25. One of the most damaging spies in United States history was
A. Tomoya Kawakita
B. Robert Philip Hanssen
C. Aldrich Hazen Ames
D. Alger Hiss
26. Jim takes the car of another without permission with the intent of driving it around the
neighborhood, thirty minutes later he returns the car undamaged to the same spot he had
taken it. Jim is likely guilty of
A. nothing
B. larceny of auto
C. joy-riding if such a statute exists in this jurisdiction
D. a or c
27. Using the U.S. Mail in furtherance of a criminal act is the definition of
A. intent to defraud
B. telemarketing fraud
C. mail fraud
D. robbery
28. Is it possible to be guilty of arson against one’s own property?
A. yes
B. no
C. only if it was “for profit”
D. only if involved insurance fraud
29. Does dual nationality alter allegiance to the United States?
A. yes, it nullifies it
B. only in times of war
C. yes, unless it is a member of the military
D. no
1. Mass murder is defined then as the killing of three or more persons at a single location with
no _______________ between the killings.
A. deliberation
B. cooling off period
C. sleep
D. other acts of violence
2. The term _______________ is often used to describe an individual who sets out, typically
with an arsenal of guns, to kill as many people as he can, sometimes randomly and
sometimes those against whom he has a grievance.
A. disciple killer
B. mass murderer
C. rampage killer
D. set-and-run killer
3. This type of killer is preoccupied with weapons, desires to “teach the world a lesson,” and to
exact revenge to individuals or systems which have “done him wrong.”
A. pseudocommando
B. disciple killer
C. school shooter
D. serial killer
4. Which of the following individuals are likely examples of “family annihilators?”
A. Charles Manson
B. Ted Bundy
C. Eric Harris
D. Andrea Yates
5. A former employees of a company who had been dismissed, and then retaliated by going to
the place where he once worked and killing former fellow employees is best referred to as
a(n)
A. disgruntled employee
B. bully
C. isolated and rejected schizoid
D. fantasizing dreamer
6. Although the average age of murderers in general is _____ years, a notable exception
exists with “workplace avengers”, where the average age is _____ years.
A. 29, 38
B. 38, 29
C. 18, 40
D. 40, 18
7. Most pseudocommando killers and workplace avengers are _______________.
A. Hispanic males
B. White males
C. African-American males
D. none of the above
8. This type of killer might plant a bomb in a building or inject poison into food products in a
supermarket.
A. family annihilators
B. long-distance killers
C. suicide bombers
D. set-and-run killers
9. The term _______________ was applied to Theodore Kaczynski before his actual identity
was known.
A. AIRBOMBER
B. BIOKILLER
C. UNAKILLER
D. UNABOMBER
10. On August 1, 1966, this man entered the tower of the University of Texas administration
building and began shooting people with a high-powered rifle.
A. Dylan Klebold
B. Dennis Rader
C. Cho Seung Hui
D. Charles Joseph Whitman
11. On Wednesday July 18, 1984, this man announced to his wife that he was “going to hunt
humans” and then proceeded to a McDonald’s restaurant where he shot 41 people.
A. Cho Seung Hui
B. Charles Whitman
C. James Oliver Huberty
D. Allen Cram
12. The wife of the McDonald’s killer in San Ysidro California blamed her husband’s behavior
on
A. high levels of monosodium glutamate, lead, and cadmium
B. a brain tumor
C. harassment by coworkers
D. a temporal lobe glioblastoma
13. The worst non-terrorist mass murder in United States history was committed by
A. Charles Joseph Whitman
B. Cho Seung Hui
C. Clyde Barrow
D. Eric Harris
14. The “BTK Killer” was
A. Herbert William Mullin
B. Bobby Theodore Kantor
C. Dennis Rader
D. John Allen Muhammad
15. “What’s one less person on the face of the earth, anyway?” This quote is attributable to
A. Ted Bundy
B. Richard von Krafft-Ebing
C. Dennis Rader
D. John Wayne Gacy
16. Which of the following is a myth regarding serial killers?
A. all serial killers are all “dysfunctional loners”
B. all serial killers are all white males
C. all serial killers are motivated only by sex
D. all the above
17. Which of the following is generally true of serial killers?
A. the serial killer has a need to be humiliated
B. the serial killer plans in the end to commit “suicide by cop”
C. the serial killer has a need to be in control
D. the serial killer has an unconscious desire to be caught
18. Norris (1988) and Ressler et al. (1988) regard many serial killers as going through certain
psychological “phases.” These phases, in their correct order are
A. aura phase, trolling phase, wooing phase, capture phase, murder phase, totem phase,
depression phase
B. depression phase, aura phase, trolling phase, wooing phase, capture phase, murder
phase, totem phase
C. aura phase, trolling phase, capture phase, wooing phase, murder phase, totem phase,
depression phase
D. depression phase, aura phase, trolling phase, capture phase, wooing phase, murder
phase, totem phase
19. Ted Bundy often strapped his arm in a sling and asked for help with carrying books or
packages in order to lure many of his victims into his car. According to the psychological
phase model of Norris (1988) and Ressler et al. (1988), this would be an example of
which phase?
A. trolling
B. totem
C. aura
D. wooing
20. Jeffrey Dahmer induced many of his victims to have a drink which was laced with drugs.
According to the psychological phase model of Norris (1988) and Ressler et al. (1988),
this would be an example of which phase?
A. wooing
B. trolling
C. capture
D. murder
21. Some serial killers take artifacts belonging to the victim, remove or eat part of the body,
remove and wear the skin, or take photographs. According to the psychological phase
model of Norris (1988) and Ressler et al. (1988), this would be an example of which
phase?
A. totem
B. depression
C. trolling
D. none of the above
22. Holmes & DeBurger (1985, 1988) have classified serial killers into a typology based on
their motives. This typology includes which of the following types?
A. parasitic, hedonistic, and mission-oriented
B. parasitic, power-seekers, and mission-oriented
C. visionary, mission-oriented, hedonistic, and power-seekers
D. parasitic, mission-oriented, and hedonistic
23. According to the Holmes & DeBurger (1985, 1988) typology, hearing voices and seeing
visions, would most likely be associated with which type of serial killer?
A. parasitic
B. hedonistic
C. visionary
D. mission-oriented
24. According to the Holmes & DeBurger (1985, 1988) typology, a powerful need to rid the
world of prostitutes, would most likely be associated with which type of serial killer?
A. mission-oriented
B. visionary
C. power-seekers
D. parasitic
25. According to the Holmes & DeBurger (1985, 1988) typology, a powerful need to rid the
world of homosexuals, would most likely be associated with which type of serial killer?
A. mission-oriented
B. visionary
C. power-seekers
D. parasitic
26. According to the Holmes & DeBurger (1985, 1988) typology, practicing cannibalism on
victims, would most likely be associated with which type of serial killer?
A. visionary
B. power-seekers
C. mission-oriented
D. parasitic
27. Necrophilia means
A. fascination with animals
B. fear of darkness
C. sex with the dead
D. fear of dead bodies
28. Necrophagia refers to
A. cannibalizing the dead
B. dismembering dead bodies
C. collecting dead animals
D. sex with animals
29. The film media’s reflection of society’s morbid curiosity with mass murder goes back to
movies of the 1960s such as
A. “Psycho”
B. “Summer of Sam”
C. “Along Came a Spider”
D. “Hannibal”
30. The killing of multiple victims is classified according to variables such as
A. race of the killer
B. time intervals between killings
C. number of people killed
D. b & c
31. Many school shooters share the characteristics of
A. coming from upper class homes
B. attending private schools
C. being unattractive and subject to social isolation
D. a & c
1. This type of terrorist seek the complete abolition of a political system and its replacement
with new structures
A. revolutionary
B. separatist
C. extorting
D. disillusioned
2. The Italian Red Brigades, the German Red Army Faction, and the Irish Republican Army,
are examples of this type of terrorist group
A. disillusioned
B. separatist
C. idealistic
D. revolutionary
3. This type of terrorism is environmentally-oriented and uses violence aimed at an audience
beyond the target, often of a symbolic nature
A. exploitative
B. Ecoterrorism
C. naturalistic
D. anarchist
4. The Phineas Priesthood, Montana Freemen, The Order, and the Arizona Patriots, are all
examples of extremist groups known as
A. Anglo-Israelism
B. Christian Identity
C. Lost Tribes
D. Hittites
5. The _______________ is a racist, anti-Semitic movement with a commitment to use
violence to achieve its goals of racial segregation and white supremacy
A. Ku Klux Klan
B. Klavern Klan
C. Montana Freemen
D. Separatist Klan
6. This black nationalism group was formed by Huey Newton and Bobby Seale in Oakland,
California, in 1966
A. Black Self-Defense Party
B. Black Militia Party
C. Black Panther Party
D. Marxist Panther Party
7. In 1995, this Japanese doomsday cult released nerve gas into a Tokyo subway
A. AUM Shinrikyo
B. Japanese Red Army
C. Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
D. AUM FALN
8. “The unlawful attack or threat of attack against computers, computer networks, or
information stored on computers, with the intent to intimidate or coerce in order to
achieve political or social objectives” is called
A. hacktivism
B. Cyberterrorism
C. ISP terror
D. network terror
9. This word, meaning literally “hashish-eater,” comes from Muslim a sect who, between
1090 and 1272 CE, fought the Christian crusaders attempting to conquer present-day
Syria and Iran.
A. zealot
B. thug
C. crusader
D. assassin
10. Some theorists hold that terrorism is a form of _______________ or an intense overreaction
to not being able to acquire or maintain power or control by intimidation, thus resulting
in shame
A. narcissistic rage
B. mental illness
C. bipolar disorder
D. dehumanization
11. The psychological literature suggests that many terrorists suffer from
A. schizophrenia
B. bipolar disorder
C. affective disorder
D. none of the above
12. The psychological literature suggests that the personality disorder terrorists are most
likely to exhibit, if at all, is
A. schizoid personality disorder
B. narcissistic personality disorder
C. antisocial personality disorder
D. borderline personality disorder
13. Individuals with a damaged self-concept may utilize the primitive defense of __________
to blame an outside enemy for their own inadequacies and weaknesses
A. frustration-aggression
B. splitting
C. externalization
D. either b or c
14. “Dichotomous thinking” is where
A. people are seen as either totally good or totally bad
B. only one side of an argument is believed
C. voices are heard
D. thinking abruptly shifts from rational to irrational
15. The People’s Temple is associated with which religious cult leader?
A. Ramzi Yousef
B. Jim Jones
C. Eric Robert Rudolph
D. Paul Hill
16. Beck (2002) regards many terrorists as becoming so engaged in their mission that their
thinking and actions focus exclusively on the destruction of the target. He terms this
A. overgeneralization
B. depluralization
C. tunnel vision
D. deindividuation
17. The process the process whereby terrorist recruits give up all their former ties and
affiliations is called
A. moral disengagement
B. deindividuation
C. depluralization
D. diffusion of responsibility
18. The process by which people feel less culpable when, either in the presence of, or on
behalf of a group, they engage in harmful or even heinous behavior, is called
A. dehumanization
B. deindividuation
C. diffusion of responsibility
D. tunnel vision
19. The process by which terror group members are asked to take on a new personal identity
both internally (such as values and beliefs) and externally (such as manner of dress), is
called
A. dehumanization
B. demonization
C. cognitive restructuring
D. self-deindividuation
20. The social psychological conditioning process whereby group members become convinced
that the enemy is in league with the devil or represent some kind of cosmic evil, is called
A. demonization
B. dehumanization
C. obedience
D. Satanism
21. In Milgram’s 1963 study of obedience, how many subjects continued to the highest
shock level despite the cries of the victim?
A. 20 out of 40
B. 33 out of 40
C. 37 out of 40
D. 40 out of 40
22. An aversion to differences in people, a desire for conformity to prevailing social norms
and authority, strict morality, political and social intolerance, an aversion to ambiguity,
and a desire for clear and unambiguous authority, are all part of the _______________
personality
A. fanatic
B. authoritarian
C. terrorist
D. fundamentalist
23. Flashbacks, nightmares, loss of emotions, detachment, difficulty sleeping, and feeling
irritable and on edge, are all symptoms of
A. posttraumatic stress disorder
B. stress-induced depersonalization disorder
C. agoraphobia
D. pan-phobic stress disorder
24. This type of therapy helps patients identify their trauma-related negative beliefs and
to change them to reduce distress
A. systematic desensitization
B. psychoanalytic therapy
C. self-calming therapy
D. cognitive-behavioral therapy
25. This type of therapy uses a combination of imagined “reliving” of traumatic events,
and “in vivo” confrontation of traumatic triggers in the outside world
A. stress-inoculation therapy
B. exposure therapy
C. cognitive-behavioral therapy
D. systematic desensitization
1. A 1972 study revealed that police supervisors reported their best officers to be
A. intelligent
B. sociable
C. self-assured
D. all the above
2. The “big five” cluster of personality traits include
A. fearlessness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism
B. arrogance, fearlessness, conscientiousness, extraversion, and agreeableness
C. openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism
D. conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism, and self-discipline
3. Decades of research have shown that _______________is a valuable predictor of work
performance for many occupational categories, including police work
A. moral reasoning
B. planning ability
C. impulse control
D. cognitive ability
4. According to Carter and Radelet (1999), it is the _______________ that is/are most damaging
to police officers
A. cumulative interactive stressors
B. individual stressful events
C. negative supervisory experiences
D. boredom interspersed with extreme excitement
5. Under the law, the failure of a police department to properly select police officers can best
be considered a form of
A. public irresponsibility
B. negligent hiring
C. negligent retention
D. negligent entrustment
6. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) is administered by which federal agency?
A. the Congress
B. the Equal Employment Opportunity Commissions
C. the federal courts
D. the Civil Rights Commission
7. As a corrective measure under the ADA, making changes in the nature of an employee’s job
is called
A. job conciliation
B. job compliance
C. reasonable compliance
D. reasonable accommodation
8. Pre-employment psychological screening of police applicants encompasses three spheres,
these are
A. cognitive assessment, personality assessment, and interview
B. background investigation, polygraph, and interview
C. cognitive assessment, background investigation, and polygraph
D. personality assessment, written examination, and polygraph
9. The most widely used psychological test in police applicant pre-employment psychological
screening is the
A. IPI
B. 16-PF
C. MMPI
D. CPI
10. The MMPI is divided into _______________ and _______________ scales
A. validity, personality
B. validity, clinical
C. clinical, personality
D. honesty, psychopathic
11. Scale 2 of the MMPI assesses
A. psychopathic-deviate
B. depression
C. hypomania
D. schizophrenia
12. Scale 4 of the MMPI assesses
A. psychopathic-deviate
B. depression
C. hypomania
D. schizophrenia
13. Scale 8 on the MMPI assesses
A. psychopathic-deviate
B. depression
C. hypomania
D. schizophrenia
14. Scale 9 on the MMPI assesses
A. psychopathic-deviate
B. depression
C. hypomania
D. schizophrenia
15. Hargrave & Hiatt (1987) as well as other researchers, have found that officers rated as
unsatisfactory by their supervisors tend to score higher on scales _____, _____, and
_____ on the MMPI than do satisfactory officers.
A. 4, 8, 9
B. 5, 6, 9
C. 5, 8, 9
D. 4, 6, 9
16. All of the following are tests designed to measure cognitive functioning except
A. the Hilson-Denning Reading Test
B. the Wonderlic Personnel Test
C. the Shipley Institute of Living Scale
D. the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
17. In Jordan v. City of New London (2000), the issue(s) at hand was(were)
A. does a low I.Q. score disqualify someone from being a police officer?
B. can someone be too intelligent to be a police officer?
C. does age discrimination apply to public safety jobs?
D. all the above
18. In Jordan v. City of New London (2000), the test used by the city of New London was the
A. the Hilson-Denning Reading Test
B. the Wonderlic Personnel Test
C. the Shipley Institute of Living Scale
D. the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
19. Which of the following tests is not commonly used in police pre-employment screening?
A. Inwald Personality Inventory
B. Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire
C. Rorschach Inkblot Test
D. California Psychological Inventory
20. United States’ courts at all levels have generally been _______________of police
departments’ rights to order fitness-for-duty evaluations and for making the necessary
and appropriate recommendations based on these evaluations
A. unsupportive
B. suspicious
C. dismissive
D. supportive
21. Many police department across the country became convinced of the need for hostage
negotiations teams after watching the 1972 Summer Olympics games in _______________.
A. Munich
B. Berlin
C. Amsterdam
C. Switzerland
22. This police department created the nation’s first hostage negotiations team
A. the Los Angeles Police Department
B. the New York Police Department
C. the Los Angeles County Sheriff’s Department
D. the Newark New Jersey Police Department
23. The first full-time police officer in the country to earn a Ph.D. in psychology was
A. Robert Jordan
B. Simon Eisdorfer
C. Harvey Schlossberg
D. R.B. Cattell
24. The first policemen in this country was in the colony of
A. Plymouth
B. Maryland
C. New Amsterdam
D. Jamestown
25. Police Psychology has also been referred to as
A. applied psychology
B. occupational psychology
C. developmental psychology
D. a & b
26. The police department with the nation’s first full-time police psychologist was the
A. L.A.P.D.
B. N.Y.P.D.
C. Chicago P.D.
D. Boston P.D.
1. In ancient times, fingerprints were often used as substitutes for
A. brand labels
B. warnings
C. signatures
D. both a and c
2. Sir Francis Galton classified fingerprints by their general shape. These shapes included
A. rise, turn, and re-curve
B. arch, loop, and rise
C. loop, whorl, and curve
D. arch, loop, and whorl
3. Sir Francis Galton referred to the numerous detailed interruptions in fingerprint shapes, as
A. points
B. minutia
C. patterns
D. furrows
4. In 1897, British official Sir Edward Richard Henry devised a workable classification system
which he used to classify prisoners in IndiA. This system was called the
A. Henry Classification System
B. Scotland Yard Classification System
C. Sir Edward Classification System
D. British Classification System
5. The study of fingerprint patterns for the purpose of making identifications is called
A. dactyloscopy
B. episcopic coaxial illumination
C. plethysmography
D. somnambulism
6. One of the oldest and most common methods for the development of latent fingerprints
Involves using a fine powder of contrasting color. This process is known as
A. lifting
B. flaking
C. dusting
D. sprinkling
7. The use of a semi-transparent mirror to observe the reflection of light perpendicular to a
surface in order to retrieve latent fingerprints from smooth non-porous surfaces is called
A. alternative fingerprint analysis
B. episcopic coaxial illumination
C. iodine lifting
D. spectroanalysis
8. The “argon ionic,” “copper vapor,” and “neodymium:YAG,” are all examples of
A. laser fingerprint methods
B. amino acid fingerprint methods
C. voice identification methods
D. psychoacoustical features of captured speech
9. In the context of fingerprint identification, the “Mayfield Affair” is an example of
A. the success of fingerprint identification
B. “confirmation bias” in fingerprint identification
C. undervaluing the relevance of fingerprint identification
D. the limits of fingerprint identification
10. Generally speaking, voice samples presented for longer durations are remembered with more
_______________ than voice samples presented for shorter durations
A. difficulty
B. accuracy
C. anxiety
D. confidence
11. In 300 BCE, spitting drier rice powder which had been placed in one’s mouth, was a very
early form of a
A. plethysmograph
B. polygraph
C. hydrosphygmograph
D. pneumograph
12. A device used to measure a person’s breathing patterns is called a
A. pneumograph
B. hydrosphygmograph
C. spectrograph
D. sphygmomanometer
13. One of the problems with polygraphs is its susceptibility to_______________ used by
examinees to fool the machine and the examiner
A. physiological reactions
B. countermeasures
C. intentional veracity
D. uncooperativeness
14. In the late eighteenth century, Franz Anton Mesmer experimented with what he called
A. magnetic healing
B. polygraphy
C. somnambulism
D. luminous fixation
15. These three Viennese physicians used hypnosis to reproduce hysterical phemomena
A. Marquis de Puységur, Josef Breuer, and Sigmund Freud
B. Abbé José Custodio de Faria, Jean Charcot, and Josef Breuer
C. Marquis de Puységur, Abbé José Custodio de Faria, and Sigmund Freud
D. Jean Charcot, Josef Breuer, and Sigmund Freud
16. The use of hypnosis to uncover memories often associated with trauma is called
A. memory catharsis
B. guided associations
C. memory enhancement
D. memory anesthesia
17. Filling in the gaps in memory with irrelevant information is called
A. confabulation
B. suggestion
C. compartmentalization
D. dissociation
18. “Memory hardening” refers to
A. the ineffectiveness of memory with the passage of time
B. the ineffectiveness of memory with the passage of events
C. the distortion of memory due to the effects of extraneous events
D. none of the above
19. Approximately __________ of all states do not permit hypnotically-refreshed memory
into evidence
A. two-thirds
B. one-third
C. one-quarter
D. one-half
20. Of those states that do allow hypnotically refreshed memory into evidence, a __________
approach is taken
A. preponderance of the evidence
B. totality-of-the-circumstances
C. clear and convincing balance of the evidence
D. beyond a reasonable doubt of the evidence
21. The murderer Ken Bianchi attempted to use the defense of
A. hypnotically-induced behavior
B. somnambulism
C. multiple personality
D. suggestibility
22. This technique is designed to fully immerse a person in a partially-recalled situation using
“freedom of description” rather than hypnosis
A. deep imagery induction
B. in vitro hierarchy
C. cognitive interview
D. guided imagery
23. There are three basic types of offender behavior at a crime scene, there are
A. dynamics, motive, and ritual
B. dynamics, signature, and motive
C. modus operandi, signature, and location
D. modus operandi, signature, and ritual
24. Crime scenes which are baffling and contain peculiarities which serve no apparent purpose
in the perpetration, are often the result of
A. staging
B. “calling cards”
C. fantasy actions
D. symbolic actions
25. The “offender consistency” hypothesis assumes that
A. the motives of different criminals who commit the same crime are the same
B. there are consistencies between the manner in which an offender carries out a crime on
one occasion and they way he carries out crimes on other occasions
C. even though an offender may commit various crimes, his basic motive is the same
D. none of the above
26. One of the major ways forensic psychologists are involved in criminal investigations is by
the identification of suspects. This is accomplished by applying psychological science to
A. interviewing witnesses
B. obtaining confessions
C. structuring lineups
D. all the above
27. In the western world, the first practical application using fingerprints was in 1858 when
they were used to _______________
A. keep track of people who drank alcohol
B. keep track of criminals
C. ratify contracts
D. none of the above
28. In 1892 Sir Francis Galton published his book “Finger Prints,” which represented the
results of his collection of over _____ sets of prints in his Anthropological laboratories.
A. 1,000
B. 5,000
C. 8,000
D. 10,000
1. It is estimated that approximately __________ innocent people are convicted each year in
the United States because of mistaken eyewitness identification
A. 9, 500
B. 3, 500
C. 4,500
D. 1,500
2. The generation of memory that is related to an incident, but is not relevant to the issue
being considered, is called
A. lateral transference
B. forward transference
C. reverse transference
D. unconscious transference
3. In the Robert Buckhout study conducted in the 1970s, seven weeks after eyewitnesses
observed an staged event, _____ % could not correctly identify the assailant
A. 75
B. 60
C. 40
D. 30
4. In the Robert Buckhout study conducted in the 1970s, seven weeks after eyewitnesses
observed an staged event, of the witnesses who could not make a correct identification,
_____ choose an innocent bystander at the event.
A. two-thirds
B. one-half
C. three-quarters
D. four-fifths
5. In July 1996, the explosion of TWA Flight 800 was reported by 20 eyewitnesses as
having been caused by a _______________
A. comet
B. bomb
C. missile
D. bird
6. The process of acquiring new information, keeping it in memory, and using it at a later time
is divided into three stages. These stages are
A. encoding, storage, and retrieval
B. perceiving, incorporating, and remembering
C. perceiving, storage, and retrieval
D. perceiving, incorporating, and retrieval
7. All of the following are estimator variables, except
A. lighting
B. stress
C. fatigue
D. the type of questioning employed
8. At its simplest level, the situation where a suspect is placed among distracters, and witnesses
are asked if they can identify him or her, is called
A. heterogeneous identification
B. a lineup
C. a showdown
D. an identification array
9. In situations where a suspect is being compared to distracters for purposes of identification,
these “distracters” are known as
A. targets
B. subjects
C. fillers or foils
D. confederates
10. The process in which the person who administers a lineup is not aware of which lineup
member is the suspect and which members are distract is known as a(n)
A. blind lineup
B. double blind lineup
C. contextual lineup
D. Show-up
11. A sequential photo spread is different from a simultaneous photo spread, in that in the latter
A. photos of suspects are presented at one time
B. photos of suspects are presented one at a time
C. photos of suspects are presented to allow for relative judgments
D. photos of suspects are presented to allow for comparative judgment
12. “Propitious heterogeneity” of lineups means that
A. foils are as similar on all dimensions to the description as given by the witness suspect
B. foils match the description of the perpetrator as given by the witness but vary on
characteristics not mentioned in the witness’s description
C. the size of the lineup is five or less
D. the size of the lineup is six or more
13. It is common practice in the United States to use _______________ persons (a suspect plus
four or five fillers) in a lineup
A. three or four
B. four or five
C. five or six
D. six or seven
14. It is common practice in the United States to use _______________ photos in a photo lineup
A. three or five
B. four or six
C. five or seven
D. six or eight
15. A suspect is presented in a lineup (or instructions are given to the witness) in such a manner
as to convey to the witness who the police want the witness to choose. This is known as
A. police malpractice
B. police malfeasance
C. simulation bias
D. presentation bias
16. Research comparing simultaneous to sequential lineup presentation has found __________
false identifications in the sequential condition
A. fewer
B. greater
C. equal
D. no instances of
17. In 1967, the United States Supreme Court decided three cases (United States v. Wade,
Gilbert v. California, and Stovall v. Denno) reinforcing the critical importance of
information obtained from lineups in the suspect identification process. But the Court’s
decisions and recommendations were made without any substantial contribution from
_______________
A. judges
B. psychological science
C. jurors
D. victims of crimes
18. In Neil v. Biggers (1972) and Manson v. Braithwaite (1977) the Supreme Court established
five factors that determine the reliability of an identification. These factors include
A. the witness’s opportunity to view the criminal during the crime
B. the length of time between the crime and the subsequent identification
C. the level of certainty demonstrated by the witness at the identification
D. all the above
19. Attorneys Barry Scheck and Peter Neufeld have used DNA evidence to examine claims of
innocence by people who were convicted by juries based primarily on eyewitness testimony.
Scheck and Neufeld’s work is called the
A. Exonerations Project
B. Exculpatory Project
C. Innocence Project
D. Scheck Project
20. The United States Attorney General who commissioned a report based on Barry Scheck and
Peter Neufeld’s work was
A. Jenet Reno
B. Eric Holder
C. Alberto Gonzales
D. John Ashcroft
21. Among the recommendations adopted by the Justice Department that were based on the
work of Scheck and Neufeld, is that questioning of witnesses should be _______________
A. cognitively based
B. emotively based
C. open-ended
D. leading
22. Measures to help control for biased or prejudiced testimony include
A. making use of trial simulations
B. making use of Motions to Suppress
C. making use of voire dire
D. all the above
23. _______________, more than other trial technique, is the most commonly implemented
safeguard against erroneous conviction resulting purely from mistaken identification
A. direct examination
B. cross-examination
C. voire dire
D. pre-trial conferences
24. The 1985 case of Kirk Bloodsworth illustrated
A. the profound effects of mistaken eyewitness testimony
B. how jurors can be intentionally mislead
C. the effects of race on juror decision-making
D. how scientific testimony can be misused
25. This person has been called the “father of scientific history” due to his strict standards of
evidence-gathering and analysis in terms of cause and effect without reference to divine
intervention which was so common for that time in history
A. Hammurabi
B. Tiberius
C. Xenophon
D. Thucydides
26. In his study of eyewitness accuracy, Robert Buckhout reported several factors which are
likely to result in an unreliable identification of a suspect. These include all the following
except
A. projective identification
B. stress
C. physical condition of the witness
D. suggestive identification procedures
27. The general unawareness of jurors to the factors which can distort eyewitness testimony
provides justification for
A. hung juries
B. admitting expert psychological testimony on eyewitness identification to assist jurors in
understanding these issues
C. jury nullification
D. all of the above
28. The Yerkes-Dodson law
A. describes the effects of arousal on learning
B. describes the effects of complexity on learning
C. describes the effects of past experience on memory
D. describes the effects of conformity on memory
29. Alfred Binet (1900) expressed that eyewitness reports were affected by
A. time deterioration
B. retroactive interference
C. proactive interference
D. suggestive questioning
30. The 1970s research conducted by Robert Buckhout took place at
A. Queens College
B. Brooklyn College
C. Hunter College
D. City College
1. Throughout history, confessions have been pivotal in three arenas, these are
A. religion, psychotherapy, and civil law
B. religion, psychotherapy, and criminal law
C. theology, medicine, and social work
D. theology, sociology, and criminology
2. In Miranda v. Arizona (1966), the Supreme Court ruled that unless the accused must be
advised by the police of his constitutional rights to remain silent and to obtain
_______________
A. contrition
B. psychotherapy
C. due process
D. counsel
3. In general, _____ % of confessions are later recanted
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 50
4. An individual makes self-incriminating statements that are purposeful and in the absence of
pressure by the police. This is an example of
A. a voluntary false confession
B. a coerced-compliant false confession
C. a coerced-internalized false confession
D. none of the above
5. A suspect confesses, despite the knowledge of his innocence, due to extreme methods of
police interrogation. This is an example of
A. a coerced-internalized false confession
B. a voluntary false confession
C. a coerced-compliant false confession
D. a coerced-torture false confession
6. An innocent suspect comes to believe that he is in fact guilty, and confesses. This is an
example of
A. a coerced-internalized false confession
B. a coerced-compliant false confession
C. a post-interrogation confession
D. a coerced-torture confession
7. A high level of “interrogative suggestibility” is likely due to all of the following except
A. anxiety
B. poor self-esteem
C. religiosity
D. prolonged social isolation
8. The case of “Delbert Ward” was one of over-suggestibility due to
A. schizophrenia
B. infancy
C. low intelligence
D. severe climate
9. When an interrogator says to a suspect charged with rape that “she was dressed really sexy,
it’s no wonder you acted the way you did,” he is likely using
A. minimization
B. maximization
C. externalization
D. splitting
10. When an interrogator says to a suspect charged with petty theft that “this is a very serious
offense, you can be in prison for a long time for this,” he is likely using
A. minimization
B. maximization
C. internalization
D. splitting
11. In 1966, the Supreme Court’s “voluntariness standard” for evaluating confessions in
criminal trials, was changed to a _______________ standard with its 1966 decision in
Miranda v. Arizona
A. self-incrimination
B. totality of the circumstances
C. admissibility
D. coercion
12. The Supreme Court has created an exception to the Miranda requirements which covers
emergency situations where a police officer’s safety may be in question. This is known as
a
A. police exception
B. safe entry exception
C. public safety exception
D. exigent circumstances exception
13. All of the following tend to make a suspect more prone to make a false confession, except
A. lengthy interrogations
B. deception in interrogations
C. non-neutral wording of questions
D. offering Miranda rights
14. Which of the following has been shown by the research to decrease the number of false
confessions and increase the reliability of confessions as evidence?
A. having a suspect’s lawyer present during interrogations
B. allowing for food and drink during interrogations
C. electronic recording of interrogations
D. taking frequent breaks during interrogations
15. Which of the following tends to decrease the likelihood of a coerced or false confession?
A. an investigator assuming a disinterested role rather than an adversarial one
B. an investigator keeping a suspect isolated from other people
C. an investigator exposing a suspect to loud noises or bright lights
D. an investigator making false or deceptive promises
16. In the New York 1989 Central Park Jogger case, the convictions of the defendants were
vacated because
A. witnesses supplied inaccurate information
B. the victim’s eyewitness report was tainted
C. the defendants’ confessions were false
D. the police planted incriminating evidence
17. DNA material can usually be found in
A. gunpowder residue
B. vehicular skid marks
C. bomb fragments
D. blood, hair, skin, saliva, and semen
18. Reliable estimates, such as those from the Innocence Project, suggest that at least _____ of
innocent defendants (especially in homicide cases) who confess to the crimes, would be
exonerated by DNA evidence
A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 35%
D. 40%
19. The purpose of confession in religion is usually to
A. achieve catharsis
B. cleanse the individual’s soul and deter further wrongdoing
C. purge the mind of buried unconscious material
D. help people understand the events associated with emotional expression
20. The purpose of confession in psychotherapy is usually to
A. achieve catharsis
B. cleanse the individual’s soul and deter further wrongdoing
C. purge the mind of buried unconscious material
D. a & c
21. In Brown v. Mississippi (1936) it was established that
A. a coerced confession violates a defendant’s due process rights under the Fourteenth
Amendment
B. a recanted confession violates a defendant’s due process rights under the Fourteenth
Amendment
C. a voluntary false confession violates a defendant’s due process rights under the
Fourteenth Amendment.
D. a confession made on foreign soil violates a defendant’s due process rights under the
Fourteenth Amendment.
1. The Romans appointed a guardian to safeguard the property of people who were mentally
disableD. Such individuals were known as
A. wards
B. legions
C. curators
D. exorcists
2. During the middle ages in England, the De Praerogativa Regis (the “Prerogative of the King”)
was enacted which divided people with mental disability into two classes. These two
classes were
A. idiots and lunatics
B. demons and devils
C. domestics and non-domestics
D. infants and adults
3. Legislatures in almost all states have made the age of majority to be
A. 21
B. 18
C. 16
D. 14
4. A contract entered into by a minor is
A. void
B. voidable
C. null
D. enforceable
5. Persons who are suffering from an incapacity can __________ void a contract
A. usually
B. always
C. never
D. almost always
6. “Testamentary capacity” refers to the ability to
A. testify in court
B. be a witness to a will
C. make a will
D. qualify as an expert
7. When a will is contested, it is usually under two circumstances. These are
A. insanity and family pressure
B. mental retardation and insanity
C. intoxication and family pressure
D. lack of testamentary capacity and undue influence
8. An attempt to determine if a deceased person had the capacity to make a will is called a(n)
A. testamentary autopsy
B. forensic autopsy
C. reconstruction autopsy
D. investigatory probate
9. The process by which a fully informed patient can participate in choices about his or her
health care is called
A. testator consent
B. a living will
C. interventional consent
D. informed consent
10. In the civil justice system there are two primary means of protecting adult individuals who
are incompetent to make vital decisions for themselves, these are
A. guardianship and conservatorship
B. ward of the court and conservatorship
C. ward of the court and guardianship
D. ward of the court and parens patriae
11. The government’s _______________ authorizes the state to protect the community and to
incarcerate individuals who are threats to the public or who have committed crimes
A. parens patriae power
B. guardianship power
C. police power
D. executive power
12. The government’s _______________ authority operates as the general guardian of all
those who cannot care for themselves
A. parens patriae
B. guardianship
C. police
D. executive
13. A defendant’s ability to function in a meaningful fashion in a legal proceeding is called
A. judicial competence
B. competence to stand trial
C. procedural competence
D. competence to testify
14. With a guilty plea, defendants waive their rights to
A. prepare an adequate defense
B. have a jury trial
C. confront accusers
D. all the above
15. In _______________ , the Supreme Court set forth a definition of competency to stand
trial that has since come to be the standard in federal court and most state
jurisdictions as well
A. Dusky v. United States
B. Drope v. Missouri
C. Sheppard v. Rees
D. O’Connor v. Donaldson
16. The _______________ is at the center of all the rights relating to patients in state
confinement.
A. right to liberty
B. right of free speech
C. right to a fair trial
D. right to privacy
17. “Every person who, under color of any statute, ordinance, regulation, custom, or usage,
of any State or Territory or the District of Columbia, subjects, or causes to be
subjected, any citizen of the United States or other person within the jurisdiction
thereof to the deprivation of any rights, privileges, or immunities secured by the
Constitution and laws, shall be liable to the party injured in an action at law . . . .”
This is the essence of what U.S. statute?
A. United States Code Title 42 § 1983
B. United States Code Title 5 § 1965
C. United States Code Title 24 § 1965
D. United States Code Title 5 § 2009
18. Which of the following is not a constitutional right?
A. a right to liberty
B. a right to free speech
C. a right to treatment
D. a right to safety
19. The Supreme Court, in Youngberg v. Romeo, established that residents of an institution who
are mentally retarded and involuntarily committed, have a constitutional right to
A. freedom from false imprisonment
B. confront their accusers
C. waive a jury trial
D. safety, protection, and to be free from the use of unreasonable bodily restraints
20. “We hold that a person involuntarily civilly committed to a state mental hospital has a
constitutional right to receive such individual treatment as will give him a reasonable
opportunity to be cured or to improve his mental condition.” This quote was from the
Supreme Court case of
A. Dusky v. United States
B. Godinez v. Moran
C. O’Connor v. Donaldson
D. Anaya v. Crossroads Managed Care Sys., InC.
21. The 1970 Supreme Court case of Wyatt v. Stickney described the beneficial movement of
residents of mental institutions from
A. more to less structured living
B. larger to smaller facilities
C. larger to smaller living units
D. all the above
22. Virtually every court that has considered the matter now recognizes a right to refuse
psychotropic medication for institutionalized populations under a doctrine of
A. safe confinement
B. informed consent
C. right to individualized treatment
D. humane habilitation
23. Between _______________ competency evaluations are conducted in the United States annually
A. 10,000 and 15,000
B. 15,000 and 20,000
C. 25,000 and 39,000
D. 40,000 and 59,000
24. A diagnosis that always renders a defendant incompetent is
A. schizophrenia
B. bipolar disorder
C. borderline personality disorder
D. none of the above
25. The issue of competency may be raised _______________ in/of the adjudication process
A. only at the beginning
B. only during the trial component
C. only at the sentencing component
D. at any point
26. In Sell v. United States (2003), the Supreme Court held that
A. involuntary administration of medication can be permitted in certain limited circumstances
B. involuntary administration of medication can be permitted in all federal cases
C. involuntary administration of medication can be permitted in all capital cases
D. involuntary administration of medication can never be permitted
27. A defendant’s current ability to understand and participate in the trial process is called
A. defense capacity
B. sanity
C. criminal responsibility
D. trial competency
28. A defendant’s state of mind at the time of the alleged crime is called
A. criminal capacity
B. sanity
C. criminal responsibility
D. criminal competency
29. “Insanity” is a _______________ term
A. medical
B. legal
C. psychiatric
D. none of the above
30. From the fourteenth through sixteenth centuries in England, in order to be found guilty of
an offense, an individual had to understand the difference between
A. good and evil
B. right and wrong
C. God and the Devil
D. King and commoner
31. The _______________ required that at the time a person committed an offense, he/she
was operating under a defect of reason from a disease of the mind and that such a defect
resulted in the individual not being able to recognize the nature and quality of his/her
actions, or not knowing that such actions were wrong
A. Durham test
B. irresistible impulse
C. M’Naughten test
D. Lord Bracton test
32. “A defendant is not responsible for criminal conduct where he/she, as a result of mental
disease or defect, did not possess substantial capacity either to appreciate the criminality
of his/her conduct or to conform his/her conduct to the requirements of the law.” This is
known as the
A. American Law Institute test
B. Durham test
C. Model Penal Code test
D. Lord Bracton test
33. Under the law, can a mentally incompetent prisoner be executed?
A. yes
B. no
C. only for capitol offenses
D. only for treason
34. In colonial America incompetent individuals were considered a matter left to
A. their families
B. the Church
C. the individual colonies
D. the King of England
35. The first mental hospital in America was opened in 1773 in the colony of
A. Delaware
B. Georgia
C. Vermont
D. Virginia
36. Civil commitment and the inpatient treatment of the mentally ill faced a major transformation
in the mid-1950s because of
A. psychotropic medication
B. Supreme Court decisions
C. The community mental health center movement
D. none of the above
37. This Act, passed in 1963, was representative of a widespread effort to move the locus of
treatment from isolated hospitals to patients’ communities
A. The Civil Commitment Act
B. The Insanity Defense Reform Act
C. The Community Mental Health Centers Act
D. The Guilty But Mentally Ill Act
38. Most states’ inpatient commitment statutes require some combination of mental illness and
A. criminality
B. dangerousness
C. need for treatment
D. lack of medical compliance
39. An example of “assisted outpatient treatment” is
A. Kendra’s Law
B. New York’s Deinstitutionalization Law
C. the Treatment Advocacy Act
D. the Torry Act
40. Critics of assisted outpatient commitment state that such laws
A. abandon the dangerousness criteria for civil commitment
B. promote unwarranted inpatient commitment of those who do not meet civil commitment
criteria
C. undermine important individual liberties by diluting the right to refuse treatment
D. all the above
1. In federal criminal cases, a jury must have _____ members
A. four
B. six
C. nine
D. twelve
2. Criminal trials in state courts can use as few as _____ jurors
A. four
B. six
C. eight
D. nine
3. Research conducted in the 1970s consistently indicated that effectiveness in jury decision-
making _______________ with decreasing size
A. decreased
B. decreased in civil cases only
C. increased
D. increased in criminal cases only
4. In 1978 the Supreme Court drew the line on the constitutionally permissible size of a felony
jury by holding in Ballew v. Georgia that _____ jurors are too few and is a violation of
the _____ Amendment
A. four, Fifth
B. five, Fifth
C. four, Sixth
D. five, Sixth
5. The burden of proof in criminal cases is
A. beyond a reasonable doubt
B. preponderance of the evidence
C. clear and convincing evidence
D. air of reality
6. The burden of proof in most civil cases is
A. beyond a reasonable doubt
B. preponderance of the evidence
C. clear and convincing evidence
D. air of reality
7. The burden of proof in certain civil cases (such as those involving fraud) is
A. beyond a reasonable doubt
B. preponderance of the evidence
C. clear and convincing evidence
D. air of reality
8. Under the common law, a jury verdict must be
A. 10 to 2
B. unanimous
C. 11 to 1
D. 5 to 1
9. The _______________ guarantees an impartial jury
A. Sixth Amendment
B. Fourth Amendment
C. Fourteenth Amendment
D. Fifteenth Amendment
10. When groups make difficult judgments, their level of performance
A. rises to the level of the highest functioning group member
B. lowers to the level of performance of the lowest functioning group member
C. is generally at the level of the average member
D. is usually worse than if only one person was making the decision
11. In most counties or cities, a jury pool is selected from among eligible jurors in the
community. To accomplish this, a master jury list is compileD. This is also known as a(n)
A. eligibility list
B. voir dire
C. jury cluster
D. jury wheel
12. A jury pool which is summoned to appear for jury service is also known as a(n)
A. venire
B. judicial list
C. demographic list
D. pretrial cluster
13. In order to be eligible for jury service in the federal system, an individual must demonstrate
all the following except
A. United States’ citizenship
B. the ability to read, write, and speak English reasonably well
C. loyalty to the United States
D. physical and mental capability of service
14. Which of the following would disqualify an individual from serving on a federal jury?
A. having family members residing outside the United States
B. having significant marital difficulties
C. a felony conviction
D. a dishonorable military discharge
15. Which of the following would likely be exempt from federal jury service?
A. a person who served on a federal jury one year ago
B. a police officer
C. a full-time mayor of a city
D. all the above
16. Which of the following would be an acceptable “challenge for cause”?
A. a potential jury member is married to a member of the state bar
B. a potential jury member has a relationship with one of the parties in the case
C. a potential jury member has committed adultery
D. all the above
17. How many “challenges for cause” may be made by either side in a criminal trial in
federal court?
A. five
B. seven
C. twelve
D. unlimited
18. How many “peremptory challenges” may generally be made by either side in a criminal
trial in federal court?
A. six for the defense and six for the prosecution
B. six for the defense and ten for the prosecution
C. ten for the defense and six for the prosecution
D. ten for the defense and ten for the prosecution
19. There is always a concern that juries is very popular trials (such as the O.J. Simpson trial)
may be biased by
A. pretrial publicity
B. impartiality
C. judges who desire to get into show business
D. inappropriate relationships between jurors
20. Which of the following is not a method for controlling the effects of pretrial publicity?
A. only allowing people to serve on the jury who do not read newspapers or watch TV
B. sequestering the jury
C. postponing the trial until publicity decreases
D. changing the venue of the trial
21. The 1986 Supreme Court case of Batson v. Kentucky concerned peremptory challenge
based on
A. country of origin
B. gender
C. race
D. religion
23. Originally developed by Adorno in the 1950s, this personality construct refers to a person’s
desire for order, well-defined rules, and to punish people who deviate from these rules.
Such a personality is called
A. prejudicial
B. authoritarian
C. sociopathic
D. fascist
24. An individual’s belief in the source of outcomes in life, i.e., that events that occur are the
result of a person’s actions or of outside forces beyond his or her control, is called
A. outcome orientation
B. outcome control
C. orientation of reinforcement
D. locus of control
26. “The application of behavioral and social scientific principles to the selection of jurors most
sympathetic to a particular side in a court case,” is called
A. jury consulting
B. juror bias determination
C. scientific jury selection
D. juror profiling
1. In the 1960s the psychoanalyst Bruno Bettelheim hypothesized that autistic children were
produced by mothers who were not competent to bond emotionally with their children. He
called these mothers
A. refrigerator moms
B. emotionally blunted moms
C. freezer moms
D. icicle moms
2. This person was considered by many to be the “father of forensic psychology”.
A. Hugo Münsterberg
B. Sigmund Freud
C. Martin Seligman
D. Clarence Darrow
3. The topic of the book “The Courage to Heal” was
A. repressed memories of alleged incest
B. self-hypnosis
C. self-help for phobias
D. dealing with rape
4. The mental process by which distressing thoughts, memories, or impulses are excluded from
consciousness and left to operate in the unconscious is called
A. selective unconsciousness
B. dissociation
C. repression
D. suppression
5. An abnormal integration of thoughts, feelings, and experiences into consciousness so that
traumatic memories are split off from conscious awareness is called
A. selective unconsciousness
B. dissociation
C. repression
D. suppression
6. The case of the _______________ is an example of what can happen when false memories,
over-zealous experts, and a fad-desensitized media come together
A. Manhattan Beach School
B. McMartin School
C. Buckey School
D. Children’s Institute School
7. This drug has been known as “truth serum.”
A. scopolamine
B. 3-quinuclidinyl benzilate
C. temazepam
D. sodium amytal
8. One judge referred to this as “spectral evidence.”
A. multiple personalities
B. psychological “syndromes”
C. “recovered” memories
D. “irresistible” impulses
9. In 1978 Dan White shot and killed Harvey Milk and San Francisco mayor George Moscone.
White’s defense team claimed that his poor diet contributed to his manic-depressive illness,
and that his manic-depressive illness contributed to his homicidal actions. This became
known as the _______________ defense.
A. junk food
B. cupcake
C. Milky Way
D. Twinkie
10. A set of symptoms and signs that occur in a regular pattern from patient to patient, and that
collectively indicate or characterize a disease, psychological disorder, or other abnormal
condition, is known as a
A. syndrome
B. diagnosis
C. manifestation
D. cluster
11. The phenomenon of hostages forming an identification with, and bonding to their captors is
called the
A. China Syndrome
B. Stockholm Syndrome
C. Love Fear Syndrome
D. Identification with the Aggressor Syndrome
12. The precursor to the battered woman syndrome was the research done on
A. learned helplessness
B. locus of control
C. cognitive maps
D. experimentally-induced neurosis
13. The original proponent of the battered women syndrome
A. Margaret Hagen
B. Ossian Sweet
C. Lenore Walker
D. Edward Kempf
14. According to the battered woman syndrome, the three phases of a battering cycle in their
correct order, are
A. acute battering, contrite and loving, tension building
B. contrite and loving, tension building, acute battering
C. contrite and loving, acute battering, tension building
D. tension building, acute battering, contrite and loving
15. According to the battered woman syndrome, this phase is characterized by a series of minor
verbal and physical battering events
A. acute battering
B. tension building
C. contrite and loving
D. none of the above
16. According to the battered woman syndrome, this phase is characterized by unusual calm
and attempts to make up for abusive behavior
A. acute battering
B. tension building
C. contrite and loving
D. none of the above
17. According to the battered woman syndrome, this phase is characterized by the victim’s
leaving the relationship temporarily
A. acute battering
B. tension building
C. contrite and loving
D. none of the above
18. Criticisms of the research underlying the battered woman syndrome include all of the
following except
A. failure to employ a proper control group
B. failure to employ appropriate statistical tests
C. failure to interview the victims of battered women syndrome
D. failure to employ controls to guard against researcher bias
19. The original research on the rape trauma syndrome (RTS) was conducted using
_______________ as subjects
A. female college students presenting at a counseling center during a three year period
B. female college students presenting at a counseling center during a one year period
C. women presenting at a Boston hospital emergency room during a three year period
D. women presenting at a Boston hospital emergency room during a one year period
20. In a trial for rape, evidence of RTS is usually introduced to put the _______________
actions into context
A. defendant’s
B. victim’s
C. assailant’s
D. victim’s family members
21. The original research on rape trauma syndrome has been criticized for all of the following
reasons except
A. inconsistent interviewing methods
B. lack of control groups
C. lack of sufficient sample size
D. none of the above
22. A ninety-year-old man looses consciousness due to a blocked blood vessel in his brain. As
a result, he looses control of his car and hits someone. His best defense is likely to be
A. lack of mens rea
B. uncontrollable spasm
C. automatism
D. a or c
23. Sleep-walking is the classic example of
A. automatism
B. deficient actus reus
C. Munchausen Syndrome
D. a factitious disorder
24. An intense form of anxiety, tension, and rage, experienced by an individual with latent
homosexual tendencies, is better known as
A. gay panic
B. homosexual panic
C. provocation
D. a or b
25. People v. Ferguson (1998) is a famous example of the _______________ in action
A. insanity defense
B. black rage defense
C. automatism defense
D. Early Arab trauma defense
26. A person is provoked, but unwilling or unable to retaliate against the original provocateur,
and later aggresses against a seemingly innocent target. This is likely an example of
A. displaced aggression
B. sublimation
C. catharsis
D. reinforced aggression
1. The manner in which available rewards are divided up among members of a group or a society
is known as
A. equal opportunity
B. distributive justice
C. restorative justice
D. social justice
2. Employment discrimination generally covers
A. race and gender
B. age and religion
C. disability and sexual orientation
D. all the above
3. The sources of federal legislation that impose equal employment opportunity obligations
on employers include all the following except
A. the federal Paternalism Act
B. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
C. the Americans with Disabilities Act
D. the Equal Pay Act
4. The American with Disabilities Act is enforced by
A. the Fair Employment Commission and Department of Justice
B. the Interstate Commerce Commission
C. the EEOC and Department of Justice
D. the Attorney General and Department of Justice
5. Amicus briefs pursuant to a federal case filed under the Americans with Disabilities Act, are
likely to be filed by
A. the American Psychological Association
B. the Paralyzed Veterans of America
C. the American Association of Retired Persons
D. a & b
6. The U.S. Supreme Court’s ruling in Price Waterhouse v. Hopkins (1989), was that the
plaintiff in the sex discrimination case did not need to show that discrimination was the only
reason for her being fired, but that discriminatory intent was a _______________ factor in
the employer’s actions.
A. hostile
B. premeditated
C. substantial
D. spurious
7. The belief that most or all members of a group subject to disability-related discrimination
share certain negative characteristics, is known as
A. subtle discrimination
B. paternalistic discrimination
C. stigmatization
D. negative stereotyping
8. A distrust, fear, embarrassment, and even avoidance of persons with mental disabilities, is
known as
A. stigmatization
B. psychological pity
C. covert discrimination
D. none of the above
9. Treating people with disabilities as helpless dependent children who are best kept out of
sight, is known as
A. internalized discrimination
B. overt discrimination
C. psychological discomfort
D. paternalism
10. Discrimination expressed in harassment, off-color language and jokes, is
A. subtle discrimination
B. overt discrimination
C. covert discrimination
D. normalized discrimination
11. The
unequal
and
harmful
treatmen
t of
people
that may
be
visible
but
often
not
noticed
because members of the discriminated group have somehow “internalized” these negative
attitudes as somehow being “normal” is called
A. subtle discrimination
B. normalized discrimination
C. covert discrimination
D. overt discrimination
12. The American with Disabilities act requires employers to make reasonable accommodations
to the needs of disabled applicants and employees, as long as such accommodation do not
result in _______________ to the employer’s operations
A. significant harm
B. real or perceived harm
C. significant slowdown
D. undue hardships
13. The type of sexual harassment in which the employment of persons is made contingent
upon their complying with sexual demands is called
A. hostile work environment sexual harassment
B. explicit bargain sexual harassment
C. quid pro quo sexual harassment
D. abusive atmosphere sexual harassment
14. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act which prohibits discrimination at work on the basis of
race, color, religion, national origin and sex, was first made law in
A. 1976
B. 1977
C. 1964
D. 1990
15. The American with Disabilities Act was made law in
A. 1976
B. 1977
C. 1964
D. 1990
16. Can same-sex harassment qualify as sexual harassment?
A. no
B. yes
C. only when evaluated under a totality of the circumstances approach
D. only when evidence of harassment was present beyond a reasonable doubt
17. Fiske and Glick (1995) argue that there are two “core” types of sexual harassers, these are
A. the hostile kind and the opportunistic kind
B. the benevolent kind and the opportunistic kind
C. the benevolent kind and the hostile kind
D. the genuine kind and the opportunistic kind
18. A self-report instrument which assesses how likely it is that a particular individual will
engage in sexual harassment is the
A. LSH
B. SHIS
C. LSHIS
D. HIS
19. Women’s reactions to sexual harassment include
A. anxiety and depression
B. sleeplessness
C. weight loss or gain
D. all the above
20. A questionnaire which measures harassment in the form of unwanted sexual attention and
sexual coercion expressed through crude words, acts and gestures, is the
A. LSH
B. SEQ
C. SHQ
D. SHEQ
21. Victims often remain silent in the face of sexual harassment out of
A. fear of retaliation and incriminations of their veracity
B. fear of spousal misunderstanding
C. self-doubting their own sanity
D. all the above
22. Almost _______________ workers are victims of violent crime each year in the United
States
A. one million
B. two million
C. three million
D. four million
23. _____ of all violent crime in the United States takes place at the workplace.
A. 15%
B. 16%
C. 17%
D. 18%
24. Which of the following groups is not characteristic of those who commit violence in the
workplace?
A. criminals who see the workplace as a target of opportunity
B. employees who impulsively get into arguments and fights
C. angry and resentful employees or customers who kill for revenge
D. employees who seek media attention as a forum to air their disagreements with
management
25. The typical disgruntled workplace killer is in his _______________
A. 20s
B. 30s or 40s
C. 50s
D. 40s or 50s
26. The disgruntled violent-prone employee may show warning signs prior to their actual
violent acts. Such warning signs include
A. difficulty accepting criticism from either supervisors or peers
B. brooding over a recent humiliating life event where he was unfairly treated
C. poor interpersonal skills especially in conflict-solving
D. all the above
27. In instances of workplace violence, the relationship between the assailant and the victim is
usually that of
A. former employee and former coworkers
B. former employee and former supervisor
C. stranger with no relationship to employees or supervisors
D. any of the above
28. “Stalking” is very similar to
A. blackmailing
B. romantic obsession
C. the first stage of serial killing
D. any of the above
29. The best term for describing the syndrome where an individual fantasizes that another
person loves him despite all indications from reality, is
A. pseudological fantastica
B. depersonalization
C. erotomania
D. cathexis
30. An angry emotional reaction to a particular event is called
A. state anger
B. trait anger
C. rigidity anger
D. compulsive anger
32. People who view aggressive behavior as acceptable or justifiable are _____ likely to
engage in aggression than people who view aggressive behavior as unacceptable or
unjustifiable
A. less
B. more
C. equally
D. reactively less likely
33. Individuals who possess lower levels of self-control are likely to respond ______________
to provocative situations and react _______________to minimal provocations
A. reflectively, defensively
B. affectively, offensively
C. aggressively, offensively
D. instinctually, defensively
34. For general, routine pre-employment screening of non-law enforcement job applicants,
which of the following is not appropriate?
A. Personnel Assessment Form
B. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
C. Employee Screening Questionnaire
D. Guilford-Zimmerman Temperament Survey
35. A model of employee discipline called discipline without punishment (DWP), treats each
worker like _______________ who is _______________
A. a professional, capable of responding to reinforcement
B. a professional, worthy of coaching
C. an adult, needing of self-facing behavior
D. an adult, worthy of respect
36. When dealing with a potentially violent employee, “static” factors should be considereD.
Examples of such static factors include
A. age
B. sex
C. cultural background
D. all the above
37. When dealing with a potentially violent employee, “dynamic” factors should be considereD.
Examples of such dynamic factors include
A. years of service at the company
B. depression
C. stress
D. both b and c
38. In an employment setting, a group that is charged with developing workplace violence
policies and making decisions about what course of action to take after a workplace
violence incident occurs, is called a
A. hostage negotiations team
B. crisis management team
C. critical stress debriefing team
D. executive management team
1. In the United States, about _______________ children die each year from mistreatment
A. 1,100
B. 1,200
C. 1,300
D. 1,400
2. A failure to provide for a child’s basic needs, an act of omission rather than one of commission,
is referred to as
A. child neglect
B. child abuse
C. passive abuse
D. benign neglect
3. Child mistreatment can have tremendous long-lasting physical and psychological
implications for children who are victims. This can include “internalizing” problems such as
A. apathy
B. withdrawal
C. low self-esteem
D. all the above
4. Child mistreatment can have tremendous long-lasting physical and psychological
implications for children who are victims. This can include “externalizing” problems such as
A. chronic shyness
B. conduct disorder
C. feelings of low self-worth
D. all the above
5. Physical child abuse includes
A. punching or beating
B. leaving the child unattended for long periods of time
C. biting or shaking
D. both a and c
6. About _____ of child maltreatment is composed of physical abuse
A. 5%
B. 9%
C. 15%
D. 19%
7. Emotional child abuse includes
A. constant criticism
B. rejection
C. pushing
D. both a and b
8. Which of the following would not be an example of child sexual abuse?
A. indecent touching of a child
B. burning with a lit cigarette
C. rape
D. forcing the child to view pornography
9. About _____ of child sexual abuse is committed by parents
A. 10%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 80%
10. Relatives other than parents account for _____ of child sexual abuse
A. 5%
B. 7%
C. 9%
D. 11%
11. The average rate of childhood sexual abuse recalled by women is _____
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 45%
12. The average rate of childhood sexual abuse recalled by men is _____
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 45%
13. Behavioral patterns suggestive of possible childhood sexual abuse include
A. running away from home in girls
B. an unusually high degree of sexual knowledge for both sexes
C. early sexual intercourse for both sexes
D. both b and c
14. Childhood sexual abuse can result in
A. anxiety and guilt
B. fear and withdrawal
C. posttraumatic stress disorder
D. all the above
15. Pedophilia is synonymous with
A. sexual offending against children
B. child molestation
C. rape
D. none of the above
16. Pedophilia is a _______________ term
A. legal
B. socio-cultural
C. medical/psychiatric/psychological
D. social psychological
17. A condition in which a person’s ability for sexual arousal and gratification is based upon
fantasizing about and engaging in sexual behavior that is atypical and usually extreme, is
called _______________
A. paraphilia
B. fetish
C. urophilia
D. sadism
18. Rubbing against a non-consenting person, usually in a crowded and constrained space such
as an elevator, is called
A. voyeurism
B. exhibitionism
C. fetishism
D. frotteurism
19. Engaging in sex with non-human animals is called
A. fetishism
B. frotteurism
C. zoophilia
D. asphyxiophilia
20. Sex with the dead or someone pretending to be dead is called
A. zoophilia
B. necrophilia
C. asphyxiophilia
D. voyeurism
21. The modus operandi of pedophiles is usually to first
A. frighten their victims into submission
B. figure out an escape plan from their activities
C. gain the trust of their victim
D. coax the child into allowing him/herself to be touched
22. A sexual preference for pubescent children is called
A. pre-nubile voyeurism
B. urophilia
C. coprophilia
D. hebephilia
23. Which of the following is not a self-report questionnaire used to assess pedophilia?
A. The Multiphasic Sex Inventory
B. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
C. The Clarke Sexual History Questionnaire
D. The Wilson Sexual Fantasy Questionnaire
24. Self-report questionnaires, like interviews, are vulnerable to
A. self-report bias
B. lying
C. inhibition falsification
D. a and b
25. A technique which measures mental activity and brain patterns is called
A. neuroimaging
B. cingulate gyrus imagery
C. orbitofrontal cortex imagery
D. EKG
26. One explanation for why child victims of intra-family sexual abuse may be reluctant to
disclose their experiences is called the
A. Stockholm syndrome
B. child sexual abuse accommodation syndrome
C. repressed memory syndrome
D. parental alienation syndrome
27. _____ of children say they trust the people they meet on the World Wide Web
A. 5%
B. 7%
C. 10%
D. 39%
28. Some online sexual predators gradually seduce children by giving them attention and
showing affection and kindness. This is known as the _______________ approach
A. soft sell
B. alluring
C. attractive
D. hard sell
29. Adult men who pursue adolescent girls and boys on the Web are more likely to have
A. criminal histories
B. less education
C. feelings of inadequacy
D. all the above
30. The deliberate killing of a newborn is called
A. filicide
B. matricide
C. infanticide
D. patricide
31. Acts of murder, often religiously influenced, in which a woman is killed for her actual or
perceived immoral behavior is called
A. filicide
B. honor killing
C. infanticide
D. patricide
32. The killing of female babies and young girls solely due to their sex is called
A. gendercide
B. matricide
C. fratricide
D. patricide
33. Between _______________ Americans age 65 or older are injured, exploited, or
otherwise mistreated every year by someone on whom they depended for care or
protection
A. one-half and one million
B. one and one-half million
C. one and two million
D. two and three million
34. Physical abuse accounts for _____ of the substantiated cases of elder mistreatment in the
United States
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
35. Abandonment occurs when an older person is deserted by his or her caregiver who
previously had assumed responsibility for providing care for that individual. Neglect
refers to the refusal or failure of a person to uphold obligations to care for an older
person. This type of elder mistreatment, accounts for _____ of all substantiated cases.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 35%
D. 55%
36. Financial exploitation of the elderly includes
A. misuse of an elder’s funds
B. taking money under false pretenses
C. forced property transfers
D. all the above
37. Any attitude, action, or institutional structure which subordinates a person or group
because of age or any assignment of roles in society purely on the basis of age, is called
A. vulnerable elder neglect
B. fraud
C. elder abandonment
D. ageism
38. Abusive caregivers often erroneously believe that their behaviors are caused by
_______________
A. the expectations of society
B. the victim
C. non-primary family members
D. all the above
1. “Mental health courts” are being used by some communities to process criminal cases
which involve people with
A. substance abuse problems
B. serious mental illness
C. no financial resources
D. no legal representation
2. Today there are about _______________ mental health courts in this country
A. 10 to 15
B. 15 to 20
C. 25 to 30
D. 90 to 100
3. Approximately _______________ individuals with severe mental illnesses are incarcerated
at any given moment in this country
A. a quarter million
B. a half million
C. three quarters of a million
D. a million
4. About ______ of the inmates in state and local jails suffer from a mental illness
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 16%
D. 20%
5. For mentally ill defendants, _______________ programs are those in which arrests for
minor offenses provide defendants with access to community services and support in lieu of
jail
A. diversion
B. anti-recidivism
C. community mental health
D. mental deterioration
6. For mentally ill defendants who go to jail, the challenge becomes one of ______________
them into the community
A. orienting
B. diverting
C. secluding
D. reintegrating
7. Any one of a variety of processes available for the resolution of disputes other than through
traditional litigation is referred to as
A. negotiation
B. alternative dispute resolution
C. mediation
D. arbitration
8. One big difference between negotiation and mediation is that
A. mediation takes place through the court
B. mediation involves a third party
C. negotiation takes place through the court
D. negotiation involves a third party
9. One big difference between mediation and arbitration is that
A. arbitration involves multiples parties
B. arbitration is reserved for disputes involving unions
C. arbitration cannot be utilized in marital situations
D. arbitration is an adjudicatory process in which a third party decides the outcome
10. Numerous studies have shown that participants are happier with a _______________
process than with _______________
A. litigation process, mediation
B. mediation process, litigation
C. litigation process, arbitration
D. arbitration process, litigation
11. In any given year, about _____ times as many women are the victims of domestic abuse
than are men.
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
12. A victim of physical or psychological abuse often experiences feelings of
A. intimidation
B. loss of control
C. hoplelessness
D. all the above
13. Victims of domestic violence often turn to _______________ for help
A. their employers
B. family
C. clergy
D. b & c
14. Shelters are often a safe haven for women who have experienced domestic violence. An
exception to this trend has been found in the case of _______________
A. religious women
B. lesbians
C. women of color
D. both b & c
15. One common means that domestic batterers use to control their victims is to deny them
access to
A. their own home
B. shelters
C. clergy
D. funds
16. “Psychopaths” have traditionally been regarded as _______________
A. treatable with individual psychotherapy
B. treatable with group psychotherapy
C. treatable with cognitive-behavioral therapy
D. untreatable
17. A stable mental state and sense of continuity in one’s life is best referred to as
A. self-actualization
B. ontological security
C. ego-syntonic mood
D. emotional resiliency
18. Which of the following is most likely to result in a person feeling unsafe and globally
insecure?
A. a violent attack directed toward the person
B. a plane crash
C. a hurricane
D. a train accident
19. The National Organization for Victim Assistance (NOVA) which has developed a generic
model of victim services which includes
A. emergency response at the time of a crisis or trauma
B. victim stabilization in the days following a crisis or trauma
C. resource mobilization in the aftermath of a crisis or trauma
D. all the above
20. In any crisis situation, a first responder’s primary concern is to
A. secure the area
B. instill a sense of calm
C. see that serious injuries get treated
D. gather information
21. First responder’s should press for details of a crime or trauma
A. before instilling a sense of safety
B. before introducing themselves to victims and bystanders
C. before instilling a sense of comfort
D. after a, b, & c
22. The degree to which symptoms of PTSD occur following a rape or other violent crime
depends on
A. how quickly first responder’s instill a sense of trust in the victim
B. psychological, social, and demographic factors
C. the presence of supportive relationships
D. b & c
23. The technique of “journaling” or “narrative therapy” involves
A. the terror or trauma survivor carrying around psychological aids to help in recovery
B. the terror or trauma survivor carrying around a chronicle of events of the attack or
C. the terror survivor keeping a journal of thoughts and feelings as they occur
D. all the above
24. In the “HEARTS” model of dealing with terror, “H” stands for
A. how one feels
B. history of events
C. healthy thoughts
D. healthy actions
25. In the “HEARTS” model of dealing with terror, “E” stands for
A. focusing on emotions
B. emphasizing constructive behaviors
C. emphasizing constructive emotions
D. explaining behavior
26. In the “HEARTS” model of dealing with terror, “A” stands for
A. rejecting abnormal thoughts
B. asking about symptoms
C. rejecting abnormal thoughts
D. none of the above
27. In the “HEARTS” model of dealing with terror, “R” stands for
A. reinforcing healthy strategies
B. reinforcing healthy thoughts
C. the reason for symptoms
D. avoiding recriminations
28. In the “HEARTS” model of dealing with terror, “T” stands for
A. trying new model of behavior
B. trying new ways of thinking
C. dealing with trauma
D. teaching relaxation and coping skills
29. In the “HEARTS” model of dealing with terror, the “S” stands for
A. self-control
B. self-change
C. saying what you feel
D. saying what you think
30. More than _____ of all soldiers facing military deployment meet the criteria for a mental
Disorder.
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
31. Of the soldiers facing military deployment who meet the criteria for mental disorder, less
than _____ actually seek help.
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. one-third
D. half
32. _______________ within the military about obtaining mental health treatment often
prevent those in need of care from seeking it.
A. stigma
B. lack of family support
C. insufficient number of psychologists
D. a & c
33. Approximately _______________ children in the U.S. have at least one parent deployed
overseas for military duty.
A. 200,000
B. 300,000
C. 500,000
D. 700,000
34. In Sell v. United States (2003), the Supreme Court ruled that
A. forced medication can never be used to restore competency
B. forced medication can routinely be used to restore competency
C. forced medication can only be used to restore competency in murder cases
D. forced medication can only be used to restore competency in limited circumstances