Given the political, economic, and social condition of the late 60’s and early 70’s, Was the declaration of Martial
Law by Ferdinand Marcos justifiable? Prove your point by citing examples.
The declaration of Martial Law by Ferdinand Marcos was not and will never be justifiable. During the
1969 campaign of Ferdinand Marcos, there were massive spending that caused the downfall of the economy.
Marcos was re-elected but there were allegations of electoral fraud. In result, people protested against the
government for the price increase of commodities, corruption in the government, and other sinuous issues that
lead to social unrest. By early 1970’s, the nation’s frustration with the government became worse. The economic
and political crisis deteriorated. The value of peso depreciated, many people lost their jobs, industrial and
agricultural development stopped. In 1971, the Plaza Miranda bombing occurred during a political campaign rally
of the Liberal Party, many people were injured and died. There were also other bombing incidents happened to
increase threat to people. A calamity in 1972 that brought flood to central Luzon also worsen the challenges faced
by the Filipino people. The prices of the commodities that were already high continued to increase. The protests
were reciprocated by the government with violence. The nation’s political, economic, and social condition was
truly disordered. However, instead of solving the problem of the nation, the constitutional convention was
focusing on the proposition to change the government system from democratic to parliamentary where many of
Law was never for the people and it will never be justifiable.