1) A data model for a database is often depicted using entity-relationship diagrams.
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2) Internal entities are those entities inside the system that send data to, or receive data from, the system.
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3) The cardinality constraint is used to specify both the minimum and maximum participation of one entity in the relationship with the other entity.
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4) One of the primary goals of implementing an ERP system is to standardize systems across multiple locations and multiple divisions.
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5) The imprest payroll account should show a zero balance after both the debit for gross pay paid to employees and the credit for gross pay distributed to jobs in process or to expense categories has been posted to the account.
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6) In an enterprise system, we would have one data store/disk symbol labeled “enterprise database” instead of two or more data store symbols.
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7) Risk assessment is the entity’s identification and analysis of relevant risks to the achievement of its objectives, forming a basis for determining how the risks should be managed.
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8) Balanced scorecard is methodology for assessing an organization’s business performance via four components: (1) financial, (2) external business process, (3) vendors, and (4) innovation and improvement activities.
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9) The control goal called efficiency of operations strives to assure that a given operations system is fulfilling the purpose(s) for which it was intended.
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10) Production and personnel are part of the operations process.
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11) The purchase order triggers the make payment process.
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12) SAS No. 99 emphasizes auditors should brainstorm fraud risks, increase professional skepticism, use unpredictable audit test patterns, and detect management override of internal controls.
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13) In a(n) ____ system, use of data entry devices allows business event data to be entered directly into the information system at the time and place the business event occurs
A.online transaction entry (OLTE)
B.online transaction data (OLTD)
C.Periodic
D.electronic document management (EDM)
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14) COBIT was developed to:
A.provide guidance to managers, users, and auditors on the best practices for the management of information technology
B.identify specific control plans that should be implemented to reduce the occurrence of fraud
C.specify the components of an information system that should be installed in an e-commerce environment
D.suggest the type of information that should be made available for management decision making
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15) A process by which organizations select objectives, establish processes to achieve objectives, and monitor performance is:
A.enterprise risk management
B.internal control
C.organizational governance
D.risk assessment
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16) This component of the ERM framework concerns the entirety of enterprise risk management and is accomplished through ongoing management activities, separate evaluations, or both.
A.control activities
B.monitoring
C.objective setting
D.risk response
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17) A decision maker prepares a presentation in a suitable format for a given decision at a given point in time when using a(n):
A.neural network (NN)
B.expert system (ES)
C.group support system (GSS)
D.decision support system (DSS)
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18) How many circles (bubbles) are included in a correctly drawn context diagram?
A.Zero
B.One
C.Three
D.between 5 and 7 bubbles
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19) The applications approach to business event processing:
A.concentrates on integrated applications
B.uses a central database
C.has data redundancy
D.none of the above
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20) Personnel development control plans consist of each of the following except:
A.checking employment references
B.providing sufficient and timely training
C.supporting employee educational interests and pursuits
D.performing scheduled evaluations
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21) The figure below shows a portion of the horizontal perspective of an accounts payable/cash disbursements (AP/CD) process. The following functional titles (for the AP/CD process organizational structures and the entities with which the AP/CD process interacts) and information flows, depicted as documents, generated or captured by the AP/CD process, have been omitted.
Functional titles (for the AP/CD structures and entities with which the process interacts)
A. Accounts payable E. VP Finance
B. Cashier F. Vendor
C. Controller G. General ledger
D. Treasurer
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Information flows (depicted as documents) |
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H. |
Payment request notice sent from accounts payable to general ledger |
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I. |
Payment request (voucher) sent from accounts payable to cashier |
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J. |
Payment (check) sent to vendor by cashier |
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K. |
Invoice sent to accounts payable from vendor |
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L. |
Payment notice sent from cashier to general ledger |
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M. |
Payment notice sent from cashier to accounts payable |
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N. |
Accounts payable invoice notice sent from accounts payable to general ledger |
Required:
Complete TB Figure 13.1 by inserting the letter corresponding to the:
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(a) |
functional titles into the boxes |
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(b) |
information flow descriptions in the document symbols |
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22) The type of maintenance that is conducted to adjust applications for changing business needs and environmental challenges of an application is referred to as:
A.preventive
B.perfective
C.adaptive
D.corrective
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23) All of the following are “guidelines” for grouping activities in a level 0 DFD except:
A.group activities if they occur in the same place and at the same time
B.group activities if they occur at different times in the same place
C.group activities if they occur at the same time but in different places
D.group activities that seem to be logically related
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24) Which of the following statements is true of a network database model?
A.child records can have more than one parent record
B.parent records can have many child records
C.both a and b
D.none of the above
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25) The applications approach to data management decouples the data from the applications or other users of the data.
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26) The ultimate goal of the OE/S process is:
A.to ensure accuracy of order entry and sales events
B.to ensure increasing sales volume through the OE/S process
C.to create value for the customer
D.none of the above
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27) Which of the following lists the detailed specifications for each raw materials item?
A.parts master
B.routing master
C.work center master
D.bill of materials
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28) In constructing a control matrix for an OE/S process, the principal data input(s) to the information system likely would be:
A.customer inquiries and customer order inputs
B.customer inquiries and shipping notice inputs
C.customer order and shipping notice inputs
D.customer order only
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29) A disadvantage of periodic mode systems is
A.online master data are only up to date right after the processing has been completed
B.it is more expensive to operate than immediate mode systems
C.query capability always exists to extract up-to-date data
D.data is updated after every transaction
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30) The model that only works well for simple data structures is the:
A.hierarchical database model
B.network database model
C.relational database model
D.object-oriented database model
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31) The fastest-growing segment of commerce-business is:
A.electronic mail (e-mail)
B.electronic document management (EDM)
C.electronic data interchange (EDI)
D.Internet commerce
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32) Which of the following develops detailed machine- and labor-use schedules that consider available capacity?
A.capacity requirements planning (CRP)
B.capable to promise planning (CTP)
C.computer-aided process planning (CAPP)
D.computer-aided manufacturing (CAM)
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33) The cash receipts process can be accelerated by using the ACH network because it is:
A.an immediate process
B.a periodic process
C.a type of EFT process
D.a batch process
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34) Which of the following is the most likely coding scheme for college courses?
A.hierarchical coding
B.sequential coding
C.block coding
D.mnemonic coding
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35) In addition to the warehousing function, the three primary departments that you would expect to be part of a typical OE/S process are:
A.sales order, shipping, and credit
B.sales order, shipping, and accounts payable
C.sales order, credit, and accounts payable
D.credit, shipping, and accounts payable
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36) Which of the following would be the likely trigger for the structured systems analysis step of systems development?
A.a request for proposal (RFP)
B.the logical specifications
C.an approved feasibility document
D.the physical requirements
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37) Which of the following is not a relationship type?
A.one-to-many
B.one-to-one
C.one-to-few
D.many-to-many
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38) ______________________________ includes activities related to adding, deleting, or replacing the standing data portions of master data.
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39) A clerk receives checks and customer receipts in the mail. He endorses the checks, fills out the deposit slip, and posts the checks to the cash receipts events data. The clerk is exercising which functions?
A.recording and executing events
B.authorizing and executing events
C.recording and authorizing events
D.safeguarding of resources and authorizing events
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40) Which of the following is an example of processing the company’s payroll for a fee?
A.electronic time management
B.payroll direct deposit system
C.payroll service bureau
D.payroll register
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41) At the time that a purchasing orders goods and services, the process is likely to interact with all of the following data stores except the:
A.purchase receipts data
B.vendor master data
C.inventory master data
D.purchase order master data
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42) In EDI, the software that includes the purchasing system at the origin and the order entry system at the destination is known as
A.translation software
B.value-added network (VAN)
C.the communications network
D.application software
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43) When a transaction cannot be processed in a routine fashion because of an error or other processing problems, the transaction must be handled by a(n):
A.rejection routine
B.change report
C.exception and summary report
D.exception routine
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44) The key functions of planning and forecasting HR needs, analyzing jobs to determine required skills, assisting in recruiting, and helping new hires adjust to their work environment is the job position of the manager of:
A.personnel appraisal and development
B.employee and industrial relations
C.HR systems
D.personnel planning and staffing
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45) Which of the following is not a cost of EDI?
A.buying or leasing of hardware and software
B.training employees
C.responsiveness to customers’ needs
D.reengineering applications
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46) A form of fraud in which the payments made by one customer are systematically applied to the account of another is called:
A.lapping
B.malfeasance
C.pre-posting
D.knitting
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47) WebTrust is a(n):
A.e-mail program
B.Internet provider
C.Internet assurance service
D.electronic document management program
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48) Which of the following systems flowcharting symbols descriptions is incorrect?
A.Tape
B.on-page connector
C.start/stop
D.paper file
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49) The system development step that immediately precedes the structured system design step is:
A.structured systems analysis
B.systems implementation and operations
C.systems survey
D.systems selection
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50) This provides a comprehensive method for integrating manual and automated internal processes, applications, and systems, as well as integration to external partners and services.
A.Application Programming Interface (API)
B.Business Process Management (BPM)
C.Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
D.Event-driven architecture (EDA)
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51) Periodic cleaning, testing, and adjusting of computer equipment is referred to as ______________________________.
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52) A(n) ______________________________ digit is an extra digit that is added to an identification number to help control the accuracy with which the number is entered into a computer system.
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53) The ______________________________ logs and monitors who is on or is trying to access the network.
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54) Briefly discuss application service providers (ASP) and Software as a Service (SaaS).
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55) ______________________________ is a manufacturing philosophy or business strategy for designing production processes that are more responsive to precisely timed customer delivery requirements.
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56) A(n) ______________________________ indemnifies a company in case it suffers losses from defalcations committed by its employees.
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